1/05/2017

TNPSC Modern World History Part -2

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TNPSC Modern World History Part -2
{1} {2} {3} {4} {5} {6} {7} {8} {9} {10} {11} {12} {13} {14} {15

16. The Pope was expelled from _________ and a Republic was proclaimed under a
committee of three, of which Mazzini was one.
a) Austria b) Rome c) Sardinia d) Lombardy

17. The Austrians defeated _________ at Navora and he abdicated in favor of his son,
Victor Emmanuel II.
a) Charles Albert b) Garibaldi c) Louie Philip d) Napoleon

18. The Austrians defeated Charles Albert at  _________ and he abdicated in favor of his
son, Victor Emmanuel II.
a) Algeria b) Plombieres c) Sadova d) Navora

19.  _________ the “Bismarck” of Italy realized that without any external help, Italy
could never be free.
a)Napoleon III b) Count Cavour
c) Joseph Garibaldi d) Charles Albert

20. By a stroke of diplomatic genius,  _________ offered the services of Scandinavian troops to Napoleon III at a critical stage of the Crimean war.
a) Count Cavour b) Charles Albert
c) Victor Emmanuel II d) Hitler

21.The Italians aided by Napoleon III defeated the Austrians at Magenta and Solferino
in _________
a) 1759 b) 1789 c) 1859 d) 1879

22. The Dutchies of Tuscany, Parma, Modena and Romagna expelled their despotic rulers and joined with _________
a) Hong Kong b) Malaysia c) Sardinia d) Singapore

23. In 1860, the people of Naples and Sicily rose against the Bourbon King _________
a) Francis II b) Victor Emmanuel II
c) Queen Isabella d) Louis XVI

24.  _________ along with his volunteers landed in Sicily and annexed the two kingdoms to Sardinia.
a) Garibaldi b) Charles Albert
c) Victor Emmanuel II d) Louis XVI

25. _________ himself led an army into the Papal States and defeated the Papal forces at Casgifigaria.
a) Queen Isabella b) Charles Albert c) Victor Emmanuel d) Edward VI

26. In 1861, the first Italian Parliament except Rome met at  _________ and conferred upon Victor Emmanuel II, the title of “King of Italy.”
a) Turin b) Portsmouth c) Algeria d) Hong Kong

27.In the Astro-Prussian war of 1866, also known as the  _________  Weeks War, Victor Emmanuel II helped Prussia.
a) four b) six c) seven d) eight
28. In the Astro-Prussian war of 1866 Victor Emmanuel II helped _________
a) Prussia b) Russia c) Spain d) Poland

29. Austria was defeated at Sadova. In the Treaty of Prague that followed, Italy obtained ________ as the price of her help to Prussia.
a) Malaysia b) Portsmouth c) Venice d) Hong Kong

30. The disasters of France during the Franco-Prussian war led to the withdrawal of the French garrison from _________ which was then easily occupied by an Italian army.
a) Rome b) Russia c) Portugal d) Spain

TNPSC Modern World History Part -1

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TNPSC Modern World History Part -1


1. The unification of Italy is an outstanding achievement in the _________ century history of Europe.
a) 17th 
b) 18th 
c) 19th 
d) 20th

2. The _________ Revolution of 1789 produced in Italians, a sense of nationalism.
a) French 
b) American 
c) Vietnam 
d) Indian

3. _________ gave the first impulse to Italian unification.
a) Napoleon 
b) Metternich 
c) Mussolini 
d) Hitler

4.  _________ drove away the Austrians and the Bourbons at Sadova.
a) Napoleon 
b) Cavour 
c) Louie Philip 
d) Metternich

5. Early in the 19th century, national feeling in _________ was stirred by revolutionary secret societies known as Carbonari
a) Italy 
b) Germany 
c) Spain 
d) Britain

6. The Carbonari wanted to overthrow foreign rule imposed by the Vienna settlement and unify _________ 
a) Italy 
b) Germany 
c) France 
d) America

7. The Carbonari wanted to overthrow foreign rule imposed by the _________ settlement and unify Italy. The movement was known as Risorgimento.
a) Vienna 
b) Paris 
c) Boston 
d) German

8. The Carbonari wanted to overthrow foreign rule imposed by the Vienna settlement and unify Italy. The movement was known as Risorgimento. But _________ intervened and crushed all movements.
a) Mazzini 
b) Napoleon 
c) Hitler 
d) Prince Metternich

9. In July, 1830, when a revolution in France placed _________ on the throne and established a constitutional monarch.
a) Louie Philip 
b) Mazzini 
c)Peter the Great 
d)Louis XIV

10. In July _________  Joseph Mazzini wanted to expel the foreign government from Italy, end the temporal authority of the Pope over the Papal States, and unit the whole of Italy under a Republican government.
a) 1748 
b) 1778 
c) 1839 
d) 1848

11. In July, 1848 _________ wanted to expel the foreign government from Italy, end the temporal authority of the Pope over the Papal States, and unit the whole of Italy under a Republican government.
a) Garibaldi 
b) Count Cavour 
c) Joseph Mazzini 
d) Louie Philip

12. To carry out his ideals, _________ established, in 1831, a movement known as “Young Italy.”
a) Garibaldi 
b) Joseph Mazzini 
c) Cavour 
d) Charles Albert

13. The “Young Italy” of  _________ lit the flames of patriotism throughout Italy and helped the cause of Italian unification.
a) Joseph Mazzini 
b) Charles Albert 
c) Garibaldi 
d) Louie Philip

14. The Austrian army crushed the revolt at Custozza near _________ 
a) Venice 
b) Portsmouth 
c) Algeria 
d) Malaysia

15. Mazzini roused the people of the Papal States against the _________ 
a) Victor Emmanuel II 
b) Charles Albert
c) Garibaldi 
d) Pope

Answer Keys:
1.c
2.a
3.a
4.a
5.a
6.a
7.a
8.d
9.a
10.d
11.c
12.b
13.a
14.a
15.d

Five State Election Declared by Election Commission of India - January 2017.

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Five State Election Declared by Election Commission of India - January 2017.
Five State to go polls between February 4, 2017 to March 8, 2017: 
  1. Uttarkhand - February 15, 70 Constituencies
  2. Punjab - February 4, 117 Constituencies
  3. Goa - February 4, 40 Constituencies
  4. Manipur - March 4 and 8, 60 Constituencies
  5. Uttar Pradesh February 11, 15, 19, 23, 27 and March 4, 8, 2017 - 403 Constituencies
What is Special in this Elections?
  • All-Woman polling booths will be set up in certain areas
  • Protection to members of SC/ST community will be provided wherever required
  • EC is mapping polling stations to make them disabled-friendly
  • Candidates can spend up to 28 Lakh in Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Uttarkhand and 20 Lakh in Manipur Goa
How to View in this Election?
  • 16.8 Crore Electorate: The Electorate's size is almost equal to Pakistans population. If a country, it would be the 7th most populous
  • 690 Seats and 185038 Polling stations
Powered by Women
  • Elections commission plans ' Woman-managed polling station' in each constituency in the five states where the entire polling staff, including police and security personnel will be women.
  • Voting slips will carry google Maps snapshot of the polling station.
  • Elections commission to be strict about Supre Court order on canvassing on religious and Case lines.
Courtesy: The New Indian Express / Times of India

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Indian Polity Dated: 05.01.2017

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Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்

TNPSC Group 1 and Group 2 General Studies Original Questions

1/05/2017 0
TNPSC Group 1 and Group 2 General Studies Original Questions
1. Compare Vitamin List 1 with its List II deficiency diseases
a. Vitamin - B12   - 1. Sterility
b. Vitamin - B6    - 2. Heamorrhagic Condition
c. Vitamin - E     - 3. Pernicious Anaemia
d. Vitamin - K     - 4. Skin Disease
Answer: a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

2. The Acid with formula, H2,N2,O2 is known as
a. Hydronitrous acid
b. Hyponitrous acid
c. Hypernitrous acid
d. Nitroxylic Acid
Answer: Hyponitrous acid

3. The energy released by the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose in plants is____
a. 1600 KJ
b. 2300 KJ
c. 2500 KJ
D. 2900 KJ
Answer: 2900 KJ

4. Match the List 1 with its List II choose the correct answer
a. Telephase       - 1. Chromatids separate and move towards poles
b. Metaphase       - 2. Spomdle fibres disappears
c. Anaphase        - 3. Nuclear membrane disappears
d. Prophase        - 4. Chromosomes at the equatorial plane
Answer: a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

5. Choose a correct pair of the following
a. Gonorrhoes - Wuchereria
b. Neisseria  - Ringworm
c. Treponema - Syphilis
d. Mircosporum - Filariasis
Answer: Treponema - Syphilis

6. Which Country is not the mumber of SAARC?
a. Afghanistan
b. Myanmar
d. Pakistan
e. Bhutan
Answer: Myanmar

7. The Nelson Mandela Award 2016 is awarded to
a. Ms. Tabassum Adnan
b. Mother Teresa
c. Ms. Padma Sachdev
d. Mr.Naredra Modi
Answer: Ms. Tabassum Adnan

8. Whic country is going to host the 2016 twenty 20 World Cup?
a. India
b. Pakistan
c. South Africa
d. Australia
Answer: India

9. Which of the following is correct as per the population census of 2011?
a. 940 femals for 100 of males
b. 933 femals for 100 of males
c. 950 femals for 100 of males
d. 953 femals for 100 of males
Answer: 940 femals for 100 of males

10. Match the Indian Medalis of 2016 Rio Paralympics with their sport:
a. Devandra Jhaiharia - Shooting
b. Deepa Malik - High Jump
c. Mariyappan Thangavelu - Javelin Throw
d. Priyesha Deshmukh - Shotput
Answer: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

1/04/2017

UGC NET Examination 2013 December in Library & Information Science - Paper II - 2

1/04/2017 0
UGC NET Examination 2013 December in Library & Information Science - Paper II - 2


21. Arrange the following University Libraries according to the year of their establishment


(i) Madras University Library


(ii) Delhi University Library


(iii) Calcutta University Library


(iv) Bombay University Library


Codes:


(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)


(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)


(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)


(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


Answer: (D)





22. What is the correct sequence of the following sections of the main entry as per classified catalogue code


(CCC)?


(i) Note Section


(ii) Leading Section


(iii) Heading Section


(iv) Title Section


Codes:


(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)


(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)


(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)


Answer: (B)





23. Arrange the following indexing sources according to the year of their first publication:


(i) Biological Abstracts


(ii) Chemical Abstracts


(iii) Index Medicus


(iv) Poole’s Index to Periodical Literature


Codes:


(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)


(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)


Answer: (B)





24. Arrange the following library associations according to their year of emergence :


(i) CILIP


(ii) ALA


(iii) SLA


(iv) ASLIB


Codes:


(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)


(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)


Answer: (C)





25. Match the following:


         List – I               List – II


a. Library Advisory Committee i. 1962


b. Review Committee           ii. 1963


c. DRTC                       iii. 1957


d. Sarada Ranganathan Endowned iv. 1961


Codes:


a b c d


(A) iv iii ii i


(B) iii iv i ii


(C) ii i iii iv


(D) i iv iii ii


Answer: (B)





26. Match the following:


        List – I          List – II


a. Facts on File i. Periodical Directory


b. World of Learning ii. Index


c. Concordance iii. Newspaper Digest


d. Willing’s Press Guide iv. Directory


Codes:


a b c d


(A) i iii iv ii


(B) ii i iii iv


(C) iii iv ii i


(D) iv ii i iii


Answer: (C)





27. Match the following:


List – I                      List – II


a. McGroger Theory X    i. Less External Control


b. McGroger Theory Y    ii. PERT


c. Unity of Command     iii. Workers’ Participation in Decision Making


d. Time and Cost        iv. All Powers in One Person


Codes:


a b c d


(A) iii i iv ii


(B) iv i iii ii


(C) ii iv iii i


(D) i iii ii iv


Answer: (A)





28. Match the following:


List – I                                        List – II


a. User Education                        i. James I Wyer


b. Conservative, Liberal and Moderate Theory of Reference Service ii. Patricia B. Knapp


c. Minimum, Middling and Maximum Theories of Reference Service iii. Eugene P. Sheehy


d. Guide to Reference Book iv. Samuel Rothstein


Codes:


a b c d


(A) ii i iv iii


(B) i ii iv iii


(C) iii ii iv i


(D) iv iii i ii


Answer: (A)





29. Match the following:


List – I                        List – II


a. W. Edward Deming            i. Quality Control Circles


b. Joseph M. Juran            ii. TQM


c. Armand V. Feigenbaum      iii. Planning, Control, Improvement


d. Kaoru Ishikava             iv. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA)


Code


a b c d


(A) ii iii iv i


(B) iv ii i iii


(C) iii iv i ii


(D) iv iii ii i


Answer: (D)  





30. Match the following:


List – I                            List – II


a. Encyclopaedia of Associations i. Secondary sources


b. Whitaker’s Almanac           ii. Primary sources


c. LISA                        iii. Directories


d. Economic Times               iv. Yearbooks


Codes:


a b c d


(A) iii iv i ii


(B) iv iii i ii


(C) ii i iv iii


(D) i iv iii ii


Answer: (A)


www.n e tu g c .in


31. Match the following:


List – I                              List – II


a. Books in Print             i. National Bibliography


b. Social Science : A Bibliography of Doctoral Dissertations ii. Trade Bibliography


c. Asian Social Science Bibliography iii. National & Trade Bibliography


d. Cumulative Book Index iv. Subject Bibliography


Codes:


a b c d


(A) ii i iv iii


(B) i iii ii iv


(C) iv i ii iii


(D) iii ii i iv


Answer: (A) 





32. Match the following:


List – I                   List – II


a. Dictionary       i. Foreign Language


b. Glossary        ii. Synonymous terms


c. Thesaurus      iii. Words, Synonyms


d. Lexicon         iv. Specific subjects


Codes:


a b c d


(A) iii iv ii i


(B) iv iii i ii


(C) i ii iv iii


(D) ii iv iii i


Answer: (A)





33. Match the following:


List – I                                                                                   List – II


a. Curriculum Development Committee (P.N. Kaula) i. 2001


b. Curriculum Development Committee (C.R. Karrisidappa) ii. 1992


c. Working Group on Libraries iii. 1910


d. Library Movement in Baroda iv. 1964


Codes:


a b c d


(A) ii i iv iii


(B) i ii iv iii


(C) iv ii iii i


(D) iii iv ii i


Answer: (A)





34. Match the following:


List – I                 List – II


a. Current Biography       i. Russia


b. Index Translationum    ii. University of Illinois


c. VINITI                iii. U.S.A.


d. Library Trends         iv. UNESCO


Codes:


a b c d


(A) iii iv i ii


(B) iv i ii iii


(C) i ii iii iv


(D) ii iii iv i


Answer: (A)





35. Match the following:


List – I                        List – II


a. Herbert Hicks        i. The Elements of Administration


b. F.W. Taylor         ii. The Management of Organisation


c. Henry Fayol        iii. Scientific Management


d. Colonel L. Urwick   iv. Administrative Management


Codes:


a b c d


(A) i iv ii iii


(B) iv ii iii i


(C) ii iii iv i


(D) iii iv i ii


Answer: (C)





36. Assertion (A) : In the study of History, as an academic discipline, a primary source is an artefact, a document, a recording or other source of information that was created during the event or immediately after the event.


Reason (R) : Primary sources are considered as original material or evidences about the topic and are


fundamental to history.


Codes:


(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.


(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.


Answer: (C)


37. Assertion (A): Indian National Bibliography is the most comprehensive source of Indian publications.


Reason (R): National Library of Kolkata is entitled to receive one copy of each Indian publication under


Delivery of Book Act.


Codes:


(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.


(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.


Answer: (B)





38. Assertion (A) : As per the generally accepted principles of construction of statistical tabulation, every table should have a clear, concise and adequate title so as to make the table intelligible without reference to the text and this title should always be placed just below the body of the table.


Reason (R) : A statistical table which reflects its title just above the table and supply information about several interrelated characteristics of data makes the table unwield and inconvenient.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.


(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





39. Assertion (A): Knowledge Management involves a number of assets and value added to them.


Reason (R): Knowledge Management is the core activity of information transfer.


Codes:


(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(B) (A) is true, but (R) is partially true.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.


(D) (A) is partially true but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





40. Assertion (A): According to Horton and Merchant, information is a commodity like other resources.


Reason (R): Information is a tangible commodity.


Codes:


(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.


(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.


Answer: (A)


UGC NET Examination 2013 December in Library & Information Science - Paper II - 1

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UGC NET Examination 2013 December in Library & Information Science - Paper II - 1


1. Name the scientist who said that Information Science is cluster of many disciplines where in the central core is ‘Information’.


(A) B.C. Brooks


(B) Fritz Machlup


(C) Daniel Bell


(D) N.J. Belkin


Answer: (B)





2. Which committee recommended that imperial library be designated as copyright library?


(A) Fayzee Committee, 1939


(B) Richey Committee, 1926


(C) Statham Committee, 1932


(D) Sadler Committee, 1916


Answer: (B)





3. Who was the first Librarian of Imperial Library, Calcutta?


(A) John MacFarlane


(B) Harinath De


(C) B.S. Kesavan


(D) S.R. Ranganathan


Answer: (A)





4. Who coined the phrase ‘Information Retrieval’?


(A) Calvin Mooers


(B) S.R. Ranganathan


(C) J.D. Brown


(D) H.P. Luhan


Answer: (A)





5. In colon classification which indicator has been used for indicating interpolation?


(A) Comma


(B) Hyphen


(C) Astericks


(D) Ampersand


Answer: (C)





6. What is Denudation?


(A) Is dividing classes to decrease the extension.


(B) Is dividing classes to increase the extension.


(C) Is dividing classes to increase intension and decrease extension.


(D) Is dividing classes to decrease intension.


Answer: (C)





7. The International Body that coordinates the assignment of unique domain names, protocol address is


(A) IGF


(B) IANA


(C) ICANN


(D) ISP


Answer: (D)





8. Name the Indian Librarian who was honoured with the title of “Khan Bahadur” in 1935 by the British


Government.


(A) S.R. Ranganathan


(B) B.S. Kesavan


(C) K.M. Asadullah


(D) D.R. Kalia


Answer: (C)





9. Which approach of information is not given by Wersig and Neveling?


(A) Structural Approach


(B) Knowledge Approach


(C) Meaning Approach


(D) Technique Approach


Answer: (D)





10. Which of the following citation style manuals are from the same publisher?


(i) A.P.A.


(ii) Turabian


(iii) Chicago


(iv) M.L.A.


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct


Answer: (B)





11. Pre co­ordinate Indexing system perceives:


(i) Syntax


(ii) Semantic


(iii) Context


(iv) Relation


Codes:


(A) (i) and (iv) are correct


(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct


(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct


(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct


Answer: (C)





12. An indispensable function of Thesaurus is to


(i) Knowledge Classification


(ii) Grouping the words together according to similarity of meaning


(iii) Representation of Relationship between concepts


(iv) Knowledge Engineering


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


(D) (i) and (iv) are correct.


Answer: (B)





13. Which of the following are the basic components of expert system?


(i) User interface


(ii) Knowledge base


(iii) Inference Mechanism


(iv) Schema


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)


(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(C) (iii), (iv) and (i)


(D) (iv), (iii) and (ii)


Answer: (A)





14. Which of the following are the types factors studies under ANOVA?


(i) Fixed


(ii) Frequency


(iii) Calculated


(iv) Random


Codes:


(A) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.


(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.


(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.


Answer: (B)





15. Which of the following are the models of communication?


(i) Economic Theory Model


(ii) Stock Adjustment Model


(iii) Shanon Weaver Model


(iv) Schramm Model


Codes:


(A) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


(C) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.


Answer: (A)





16. Which of the following are criteria for Web evaluation?


(i) Revision


(ii) Response time


(iii) Format


(iv) Archiving facility


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct.


(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.


(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


Answer: (B)





17. Which of the following countries do not have a code of Ethics for library profession?


(i) America


(ii) Sri Lanka


(iii) India


(iv) China


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.


(C) (iii) and (ii) are correct.


(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


Answer: (D)





18. Which of the following are the components of Search Engine?


(i) Spider


(ii) TCP/IP


(iii) Search Mechanism


(iv) Index


Codes:


(A) (iv), (i) and (ii)


(B) (iii), (ii) and (i)


(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)


(D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)


Answer: (C)





19. When the permission of copyright owner is not needed?


(i) Criticism or review


(ii) Translation


(iii) Research purpose


(iv) Photocopy for sale


Codes:


(A) (i) and (iii) are correct.


(B) (i) and (iv) are correct.


(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct.


Answer: (A)





20. Which of the following are Library net works?


(i) Internet


(ii) Indonet


(iii) INFLIBNET


(iv) OCLC


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.


(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct.


(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.


(D) (i) and (iv) are correct.



TNPSC General Tamil Model Questions

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TNPSC General Tamil Model Questions
TNPSC General Tamil Model Questions: Important Questions and Answers.

  • பொதுத்தமிà®´ில் à®®ுக்கிய வினாக்கள்
  • அடைà®®ொà®´ியால் குà®±ிக்கப்பெà®±ுà®®் நூல்கள் 

Download: TNPSC General Tamil Model Questions: Important Questions and Answers.

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Indian Polity Dated: 04.01.2017

1/04/2017 0
Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்

1/03/2017

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Indian Polity Dated: 03.01.2017

1/03/2017 0
Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்

1/02/2017

TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 3

1/02/2017 0
TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 3
41. Returns to scale refers to the production function where
A. All factors are fixed
B. Some factors are fixed and others are variable
C. All factors are variable
D. None of the above

42. In the case of diminishing returns to scale, a given proportionate  increase in all factors causes
A. A more than proportionate increase in output
B. An equal proportionate increase in output
C. A less than proportionate increase in output
D. None of the above

43. Increasing returns to scale occurs due to
A. Division of labour C. Economies of scale
B. Specialization D. All of the above

44. The cause for diminishing returns to scale is:
A. Improper proportion of factors of production
B. Difficulty in the combination of certain factors
C. Excess combination of certain factors
D. All of the above

45. The solution to diminishing returns to scale is :
A. Technical progress
B. Expansion of resources
C. Proper combination or resources
D. All of the above

46. Economies of scale refers to:
A. Advantages resulting from large scale production
B. Disadvantages resulting from large scale production
C. Advantages resulting from the increase in the number of consumers
D. All of the above

47. Which one of the following is not related to economies of scale:
A. Scope for division of labour and specialization
B. Scope for getting inputs at cheaper rates
C. Difficulty faces by the managers to coordinate the business
D. Scope for better storage facilities

48. The law of Diminishing returns is applicable to:
A. Agriculture only C. In short-run only
B. Industry only D. Universally

49. Let a firm employs 5 labourers and produces 120 units of output. When  6 labourers are employed the firm produces 136 units of output. Then the marginal product is________
A. 120 C. 6
B. 136 D. 16

50. A firm produces 200 units of commodity X by employing 10 workers and  240 units of the same commodity by employing 12 workers. Then the  Average Product of the worker is _______
A. 200 C. 20
B. 240 D. 40

51. Other things remaining the same, the quantity of a product demanded  increases with __________ in price.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Variation
D. None of the above

52. When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is:
A. Maximum
B. One
C. Zero
D. Infinite

53. For complementary goods, the cross elasticity of demand:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None

54. Relation between price of a commodity and demand for another
 commodity is measured by:
A. Price elasticity
B. Income elasticity
C. Cross elasticity
D. Elasticity of substitution

55. When TU falls, MU is:
A. Rises
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Negative

56. Demand varies ________ with price.
A. Directly
B. Positively
C. Inversely
D. None of the above

57. When Q = f (P), the elasticity coefficient is measured by:
A. ∆Q/∆P / P/Q
B. ∆P/∆Q * Q/P
C. ∆Q/∆P * P/Q
D. ∆P/∆Q / Q/P 

58. Income elasticity of demand for inferior good is:
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Zero
D. Unity

59. In the case of luxury goods, the income elasticity of demand will be:
A. Less than unity
B. Unity
C. More than unity
D. All the above

60. Income elasticity is positive, but less than unity in the case of:
A. Necessity
B. Luxury
C. Inferior
D. Substitutes 

Answer Keys
41 C 42 C 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 A 47 C 48 D 49 D 50 C
51 B 52 C 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 C 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 A 

TNPSC: Important Committees for all Competitive Exams - Upto 2016

1/02/2017 0
TNPSC: Important Committees for all Competitive Exams - Upto 2016
 TNPSC: Important Committees for all Competitive Exams - upto 2016
  • Naresh Chandra Committee - Defense reforms
  • Sachar Committee - Examine social, economic and educational condition of the Muslim community of India
  • Malhothra Committee: Insurance Sector Reforms
  • Dr. Mehta Committee: Integrated rural Development Programme
  • Narasimham Committee: Financial Sector Reforms
  • Nayak Committee: Credit to SSS Sector
  • Rangarajan Committee: Public Sector Disinvestment
  • Raj Committee: Agricultural Holding tax
  • Khusro Committee: Agricultural Credit
  • Raja Chellaiah Committee: Tax reformsGhosh Committee: Bank Frauds
  • Omkar Gosami Committee: Industrial Sickness and Corporate restructuring
  • Jhanakiraman Committee: To enquire into the Securities and transaction of the banks and financial institutions
  • Jilani Committee: Loan System
  • Goiporia Committee: Customer Service
  • Ram Nivas Mirdha Committee: To enquire into the Securities Scam.
  • Bhagawati Committee: Public Welfare
  • Suresh Prabhu Committee: To review gas pricing formula
  • Ajay Shankar Committee : To review functioning of PPP Cell
  • Prof. NR Madhava Menon Panel : Reported guidelines for regulating expenditure and content of advertisement in govt. adds
  • H Devaraj Commitee : Reported most deemed university
  • H R Khan Panel : To evaluate unclaimed PPF and Post Office Savings
  • V V Daga Committee : To conduct forensic audit of NSEL
  • Sivaramakrishnan committee : Submit Report to build the capital city for Andhra Pradesh
  • Ramanujam committee : To avoid obsolete laws
  • Bimal Jalan : To head the Expenditure Management Commission
  • Hari Gautam Committee : To review the status of UGC
  • Justice SB Sinha (One Member Commission):To Probe 2006 Meerut Fire Tragedy
  • Suresh Prabhu Committee: To review gas pricing formula
  • R S Sharma Expert Committee : To review the Company (Cost Records and Cost Audits) Rules 2014
  • Justice MB Shah : On Black Money
  • Deepak Mohanty Committee : Data and Information Management in the RBI
  • Arvind Mayaram Committee : To clear definition to the FDI and FII
  • Nachiket Mor Committee : To permit NBFC's to work as Business correspondence
  • P J Nayak Committee : Governance of Boards of Bank in India
  • Bibek Debroy : for Restructuring the railway
  • Justice CS Dharmadhikari Committee: recommended complete ban on dance bars in hotels and restaurants.
  • Pratyush Sinha : To assess compensation for coal blocks.
  • Jairam Ramesh : On sustainable development
  • T.K. Vishwanathan committee: To provide Bankruptcy code for small and medium enterprises (SMEs).
  • K.V. Kamath panel: to examine the financial architecture for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
  • Gopalakrishna Committee: on Capacity Building in Banks and non-Banks
  • G N Bajpai Committee: Guidelines for national pension system (NPS) schemes in private sector.
  • Scientist Raghunath Anant Mashelkar panel: To recommend best technologies for Prime Minister
  • Narendra Modi's "Swachh Bharat" national sanitation campaign.
  • T S R Subramanian Committee: To review five key green laws concerning protection and conservation of environment, forest, wildlife, water and air among others
  • Ramanujam committee : To avoid obsolete laws
  • Ajay Shankar Committee :To review functioning of PPP Cell
  • Prof. NR Madhava Menon Panel :Reported guidelines for regulating expenditure and content of advertisement in govt. adds
  • H Devaraj Committee :Reported most deemed university
  • H R Khan Panel :To evaluate unclaimed PPF and Post Office Savings
  • V V Daga Committee :To conduct forensic audit of NSEL
  • Sivaramakrishnan committee :Submit Report to build the capital city for Andhra Pradesh
  • Bimal Jalan :To head the Expenditure Management Commission
  • Hari Gautam Committee :To review the status of UGC
  • Justice SB Sinha (One Member Commission):To Probe 2006 Meerut Fire Tragedy
  • Suresh Prabhu Committee:To review gas pricing formula
  • R S Sharma Expert Committee :  To review the Company (Cost Records and Cost Audits) 
  • Justice BM Shah committee: On Black Money
  • Deepak Mohanty Committee :Data and Information Management in the RBI
  • Arvind Mayaram Committee:To clear definition to the FDI and FII
  • Nachiket Mor Committee : To permit NBFC’s to work as Business correspondence
  • P J Nayak Committee :Governance of Boards of Bank in India
  • Bibek Debroy :for Restructuring the railway
  • Justice CS Dharmadhikari Committee:recommended complete ban on dance bars in hotels and restaurants.
  • Pratyush Sinha :To assess compensation for coal blocks.
  • Jairam Ramesh :On sustainable development
  • T.K. Vishwanathan committee:To provide Bankruptcy code for small and medium enterprises (SMEs).
  • K.V. Kamath panel:to examine the financial architecture for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
  • Gopalakrishna Committee:on Capacity Building in Banks and non-Banks
  • G N Bajpai Committee:Guidelines for national pension system (NPS) schemes in private sector.
  • Scientist Raghunath Anant Mashelkar panel:To recommend best technologies for Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s “Swachh Bharat” national sanitation campaign.
  • T S R Subramanian Committee:To review five key green laws concerning protection and conservation of environment, forest, wildlife, water and air among others.
  • Tandon Committee:Follow Up Of Bank Credit
  • DR Gadgil Committee:Agricultural Finance
  • Godwala Committee:Rural Finance
  • ML Dantwala Committee:Regional Rural Banks
  • SS Nadkarni Committee:Trading In Public Sector Banks
  • Venketaiya Committee:Review Of Rural Financing System
  • Bhide Committee:Coordination Between Commercial Banks And SFC’s
  • AK Bhuchar Committee:Coordination Between Term Lending Institutions And Commercial Banks.
  • R. Jilani:Inspection System in Banks
  • Goiporia Committee:Customer Service In Banks
  • LC Gupta Committee: Financial Derivatives
  • James Raj Committee:Functioning Of Public Sector Banks
  • Vipin Malik Committee:Consolidated Accounting By Banks
  • A Ghosh Committee: Frauds & Malpractices In Banks
  • BD Thakar Committee:Job Criteria In Bank Loans (Approach)
  • A K Khandelwal:HR Issues of Public Sector Banks

TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 2

1/02/2017 0
TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 2
21. Transformation of inputs into outputs is known as
A. Production C. Distribution
B. Consumption D. Exchange

22. ----- is an example of secondary input
A. Land C. Capital
B. Labour D. Raw material

23. Odd-man out from the following
A. Steel C. Education
B. Medicine D. Train

24. The choice of techniques of production is related to the problem of
A. What to produce C. For whom to produce 
B. How to produce D. None of the above

25. The functional relationship between inputs and outputs is called
A. Production function C. Investment function
B. Consumption function D. Saving function

26. Firms owned by one individual is known as
A. Proprietorship C. Corporations
B. Partnership D. None of the above

27. Firms owned by two or more individuals is known as
A. Proprietorship C. Corporations
B. Partnership D. None of the above

28. Firms owned by stock holders are known as
A. Proprietorship C. Corporations
B. Partnership D. None of the above

29. The major objective of a firm is
A. Profit maximization C. Sales maximization
B. Revenue maximization D. None of the above

30. Which one of the following is an example of fixed input
A. Raw materials C. Plant and equipments
B. Casual workers D. All of the above

31. In short-run
A. All inputs are fixed
B. All inputs are variable
C. Some inputs are fixed and some are variable
D. None of the above

32. In long-run
A. All inputs are fixed
B. All inputs are variable
C. Some inputs are fixed and some are variable
D. None of the above

33. Marginal product of a factor is
A. The additional product received by the firm due to the  employment of an additional unit of a variable factor
B. Addition to the total product when one more unit of a factor is  employed 
C. The rate of change in the total product per unit change in the
 variable factor.
D. All of the above

34. Production function expresses
A. The relationship between input and output
B. How maximum output is produced with the given input
C. What is the least-cost combination of input to produce the given  output
D. All of the above

35. The variable cost of a firm vary in direct proportion to the
A. Volume of its output C. Volume of its sale
B. Extent of its profits D. All of the above

36. Law of variable proportions is concerned with
A. Long-run production function
B. Laws of returns to scale
C. Short-run production function
D. None of the above

37. The ‘point of inflection’ come in which stage of the law of variable proportions
A. Stage I C. Stage III
B. Stage II D. None of the above

38. A rational producer will select his level of production in which stage of  the law of variable proportions
A. Stage I C. Stage III
B. Stage II D. Either Stage I or Stage II

39. Total product reaches at maximum when
A. MP is increasing C. MP = 0
B. MP is maximum D. MP is negative

40. At the ‘point of inflection’
A. MP is maximum C. TP is maximum
B. AP is maximum D. All of the above 

ANSWER KEYS
21 A 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 C 
31 C 32 B 33 D 34 D 35 A 36 C 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 A

TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 1

1/02/2017 0
TNPSC General Economics MCQ - 1
1. The subject matter of economics is concerned with
A. Production
C. Distribution and exchange
B. Consumption 
D. All of the above

2. The economic problem arises since
A. Wants are unlimited
B. Resources are limited
C. Resources are capable of alternative uses
D. All of the above

3. The wants of the people are
A. Limited 
C. Unlimited
B. Satiable 
D. All of the above

4. Economic problem arises in
A. Planned economies 
C. Mixed economies
B. Free market economies 
D. All of the above

5. The resources are :
A. Limited 
B. Unlimited
C. Not only limited but are capable of alternative uses
D. None of the above

6. Which one of the following is an example of an economic good
A. Sunlight
C. Petrol
B. Air 
D. None of the above

7. ----- is not an example of free good
A. Sunlight 
C. Petrol
B. Car 
D. Computer

8. The term production refers to:
A. Producing things which are capable of satisfying human wants
B. Creation or addition of utilities
C. Transformation of inputs into output
D. All of the above

9. The problem of allocation of resources is concerned with:
A. What to produce
C. For whom to produce
B. How to produce 
D. All of the above

10. The distribution of national product among the members of the society  is the problem of:
A. What to produce 
C. For whom to produce
B. How to produce 
D. All of the above

11. Production is said to be efficient when:
A. The re-allocation of resources cannot increase the production of  the article even by one unit
B. More output is produced with the given input
C. Resources are fully employed
D. All of the above

12. Which one of the following come under macro economics:
A. Per capita income 
C. Individual income
B. Study of a firm 
D. Theory of factor pricing

13. Which one of the following is not come under macro economics
A. National income 
C. Disposable income
B. Per capita income 
D. Individual income

14. Partial equilibrium analysis come under:
A. Micro economics 
C. Welfare economics
B. Macro economics 
D. International economics 

15. “The starting point of all economic activity is the existence of human  wants” Who said this?
A. Adam Smith 
C. Ricardo
B. Selligman 
D. Alfred Marshall

16. Production and consumption takes place simultaneously in the case of
A. Goods
B. Services
C. Both in the case of goods and services
D. Neither in the case of goods and services

17. Economics is a social science because
A. The central point in economics is man and his problems
B. Economics uses scientific approach to derive its laws
C. Like History, Politics and Psychology economics deals with the  problems of human being
D. All of the above

18. Economic growth can be achieved through
A. Advanced technology 
C. Both A & B
B. Expansion of resources 
D. Neither A & B

19. Micro economics doesn’t deal with:
A. The study of individual economic units
B. Determination of factor prices
C. Price determination of commodities
D. General equilibrium analysis

20. Name the economist who analyses the subject matter of economics into  two branches: micro economic analysis and macro economic analysis.
A. Adam Smith 
C. Ragner Frisch
B. Alfred Marshall 
D. P A Samuelson 

ANSWER KEYS

1 D 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 C 6 C 7 A 8 D 9 A 10 C 
11 A 12 A 13 D 14 A 15 B 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 D 
20 C 

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Indian Polity Dated: 02.01.2017

1/02/2017 0
Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்

1/01/2017

2016 Events in Tamil Medium (January to December 2016) Prepared by Dinamani Newspaper.

1/01/2017 0
2016 Events in Tamil Medium (January to December 2016) Prepared by Dinamani Newspaper.
TNPSC Master publishes relevant fact based Current Affairs almost daily basis. In this current affairs helps you and useful for General Awareness part of TNPSC, UPSC, SSC IBPS Banking and other State Public Service Commission examination. TNPSC Master is a compilation of recent current events. In This section is updated almost daily events, Innovation, Achievement, Awards and New Appointments etc.


Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Indian Polity Dated: 01.01.2017

1/01/2017 0
Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்