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Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



1. The protein requirement for an Indian adult as per ICMR (Indian Council for Medical Research) is





(A) 0.5 gm/kg body weight





(B) 1.0 gm/kg body weight





(C) 1.5 gm/kg body weight





(D) 2.0 gm/kg body weight





Answers: (B)











2. The maximum permissible level of chlorides in drinking water is





(A) 200 mg/litre





(B) 400 mg/litre





(C) 600 mg/litre





(D) 800 mg/litre





Answers: (C)











3. “Health for All was adopted by the signatory countries after which of the following international meetings?





(A) International Conference on Population and Development.





(B) Alma Ata Declaration





(C) Earth Summit





(D) Beijing Conference





Answers: (B)











4. The rule of halves applies to which of the following non-communicable diseases?





(A) Diabetes





(B) Hypertension





(C) Cancer





(D) Blindness





Answers: (B)











5. The protein content of breast milk is





(A) 0.1 gm/100 ml





(B) 1.1 gm/100 ml





(C) 4.5 gm/100 ml





(D) 11 gm/100 ml





Answers: (B)











6. Denominator for Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is





(A) Total births





(B) Total live births





(C) Mid-year population





(D) Total deaths in population





Answers: (B)











7. Direct standardisation used for comparison of mortality rates between two countries is undertaken due to difference in





(A) Age-sex distribution





(B) Causes of death





(C) Life span of population





(D) Disease transition





Answers: (A)











8. Distinct feature at the start of cohart study is





(A) Exposure has occurred, disease has not occurred.





(B) Both exposure and disease have occurred.





(C) Disease has occurred in population with some common characteristics.





(D) Neither disease nor exposure has occurred.





Answers: (A)











9. Pregnancy rate with use of Copper T-T Cu 380A is





(A) 0 %





(B) 0.5 – 0.8 %





(C) 1.0 – 2.0 %





(D) 2.0 – 4.0 %





Answers: (B)











10. As per national immunization schedule first dose of measles vaccine is given at the age of





(A) six weeks





(B) ten weeks





(C) fourteen weeks





(D) nine months





Answers: (D)











11. The following are true about Case Control Study:





I. Rapid and inexpensive





II. Both exposure and outcome have occurred before the study.





III. Incidence rates can be computed.





IV. Controls are not suffering from the disease under the study.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) I & II are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











12. Following are true regarding point source epidemic:





I. Rapid rise and fall





II. Explosive





III. The Epidemic curve has 2 peaks, 1st peak due to primary cases and 2nd peak due to secondary cases.





IV. It is always infectious in nature.





(A) I, II and III are correct.





(B) I and II are correct.





(C) I, III and IV are correct.





(D) II and IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











13. Which of the following statements are correct regarding epidemiology of measles?





I. Incubation period is commonly 10 days from exposure.





II. Carrier state is common.





III. Pneumonia is the most common life threatening complication.





IV. There is a high secondary attack rate.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & II are correct.





(C) I & III are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











14. The critical determinants of a facility being declared as a ‘First Referral Unit’ are





I. Availability of surgical intervention





II. Bed strength of 100





III. New Born Care





IV. 24 hrs. Blood storage facility





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & III are correct.





(C) II & IV are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (D)











15. The following statements regarding Vitamin D are true:





I. Vitamin D is unique because it is derived from Sunlight and food both.





II. It is a Water soluble vitamin.





III. It occurs only in foods of plant origin.





IV. Its deficiency leads to rickets.





(A) I & II are correct.





(B) II & III are correct.





(C) III & IV are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (D)











16. The following statements regarding water purification are true :





I. The components of a typical water purification system comprise storage, filtration and disinfection.





II. The vital layer of a slow sand filter is known as “Schmutzdeste”.





III. Chlorination is a supplement but not a substitute for sand filtration.





IV. Slow sand filter occupies small area as compared to rapid sand filter.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) II, III & IV are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (A)











17. Name the committee(s) which has contributed in the health planning of India.





I. Bhore Committee





II. Mudaliar Committee





III. Srivastava Committee





IV. Verma Committee





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & III are correct.





(C) III & IV are correct.





(D) II & IV are correct.





Answers: (A)











18. AYUSH is the alternative system of medicine which includes the following:





I. Homeopathy





II. Siddha





III. Reiki





IV. Ayurveda





(A) I & IV are correct.





(B) II & III are correct.





(C) I, II & IV are correct.





(D) III & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











19. The salient features of Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses as practised in India are





I. Incorporating National Guidelines on Malaria, Anaemia, Vitamin A supplementation and immunization schedule.





II. It is skill based.





III. Includes 0-7 days age in the program.





IV. Training of health personnel begins with sick young infants older than 2 months.





(A) I, III & IV are correct.





(B) I, II & III are correct.





(C) II, III & IV are correct.





(D) I, II & IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











20. Following are features of cross over studies:





I. Patients are randomly assigned to study and control groups.





II. The two groups are switched over immediately after half the duration of the study.





III. The study group receives the treatment under consideration and the control group receives alternative treatment or placebo.





IV. It cannot be used if the drug of interest cures the disease.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) I, III & IV are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











Given below (21 to 30) consists of 2 paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.











21. Assertion (A): Health problems of the elderly are multifactorial.





Reason (R): Elderly contribute about 12% of the total population.





Answers: (C)











22. Assertion (A): Domestic violence affects the health of the women in more than one-way.





Reason (R): Women’s’ health is an intrinsic part of public health concern.





Answers: (B)











23. Assertion (A): Syndromic management of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) is a scientific and cost effective method of management of STDs.





Reason (R): Some of the agents causing sexually transmitted infections give rise to similar or overlapping clinical manifestations.





Answers: (A)











24. Assertion (A): BCG vaccine in infants is given on the left upper arm only.





Reason (R): In case no scar appears after BCG vaccination, revaccination is required.





Answers: (C)











25. Assertion (A): The appropriate test under RNTCP to confirm pulmonary tuberculosis is sputum examination for AFB.





Reason (R): Tubercle bacilli are excreted in the sputum by cases of pulmonary tuberculosis.





Answers: (A)











26. Assertion (A): Medical benefit under the ESI Act consists of “Full Medical Care” including hospitalization free of cost to the insured person.





Reason (R): The aim of occupational health is the promotion and maintenance of highest degree of physical, mental and social well-being of workers in all occupations.





Answers: (B)











27. Assertion (A): Primordial prevention and Primary prevention are one and the same.





Reason (R): Both are directed towards prevention of disease before its onset.





Answers: (D)











28. Assertion (A): Bar charts and Histograms are pictorial diagrams of frequency distribution.





Reason (R): The frequency in both bar charts and histograms is usually given on y axis.





Answers: (D)











29. Assertion (A): In probability sampling each item has a known probability of being in the sample.





Reason (R): Snowball sampling is a probability sampling.





Answers: (C)











30. Assertion (A): Blood pressure recording in adolescents can identify more at risk of developing hypertension in adult life.





Reason (R): Blood pressure levels of individuals if tracked from early childhood into adult life show that initial high levels tend to become higher and initial low levels remain lower with age.





Answers: (A)











31. Health Culture as explained by D. Banerji comprises of the following in their order of occurrence.





(A) Symptoms, Worry, Awareness, Action Taking.





(B) Worry, Awareness, Action Taking, Symptoms.





(C) Symptoms, Action Taking, Awareness, Worry.





(D) Action Taking, Symptoms, Worry, Awareness.





Answers: (A)











32. Arrange the following states in descending order of Infant Mortality Rates.





(A) Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal.





(B) Bihar, West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Goa.





(C) West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Goa.





(D) Goa, Himachal Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar.





Answers: (Wrong question)











33. Identify the correct sequence of food items in ascending order of Iron content.





(A) Almonds, Dates, Raisins, Groundnuts.





(B) Dates, Raisins, Groundnuts, Almonds.





(C) Raisins, Groundnuts, Almonds, Dates.





(D) Groundnuts, Almonds, Dates, Raisins.





Answers: (D)











34. Identify the correct order in which the following phenomenon occur after BCG vaccination?





(A) Papule, shallow ulcer, wheel, scar.





(B) Papule, wheel, shallow ulcer, scar.





(C) Wheel, papule, shallow ulcer, scar.





(D) Wheel, papule, scar, shallow ulcer.





Answers: (C)











35. Identify the correct sequence of stages in a sexual cycle of ‘Malaria Parasite’ ______





(A) Trophozoites, Schizonts, Merozoites, Sporozoites





(B) Sporozoites, Merozoites, Trophozoites, Schizonts.





(C) Merozoites, Trophozoites, Sporozoites, Schizonts.





(D) Sporozoites, Trophozoites, Merozoites, Schizonts.





Answers: (Wrong question)











36. Identify the correct sequence of following events in chronological order as they occurred in the history of Public Health.





(A) State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, Sanitory reforms by John Simon.





(B) Sanitory reforms by John Simon, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd.





(C) Epidemiology of Cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, Sanitory reforms by John Simon, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank.





(D) Sanitory reforms by John Simon, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank.





Answers: (A)











37. Identify the correct sequence of stages of demographic cycle.





(A) High stationary, Low stationary, early expanding, late expanding.





(B) Low stationary, high stationary, early expanding, late expanding.





(C) Low stationary, early expanding, late expanding, High stationary.





(D) High stationary, early expanding, Late expanding, Low stationary.





Answers: (D)











38. Arrange in correct ascending order the fibre content of some common Indian Foods.





(A) Bajara, Sweet Potato, Bengal gram, Banana.





(B) Banana, Bajara, Bengal gram, Sweet Potato.





(C) Bajara, Bengal gram, Sweet Potato, Banana.





(D) Banana, Sweet Potato, Bengal gram, Bajara.





Answers: (D)











39. Identify the correct sequence of mile stones in relation to maternal and child health in chronological order.





(A) Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women, Concern over high maternal mortality, Integration of sexual and reproductive health.





(B) Concern over high maternal mortality, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women.





(C) Declaration of rights of children, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Elimination of discrimination against women, Concern over high maternal mortality.





(D) Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Concern over high maternal mortality.





Answers: (A)











40. Identify the correct sequence of stages in modern sewage treatment plant.





(A) Sludge digestion, screening of sewage, sedimentation of sewage, composting with town refuse.





(B) Screening of sewage, sedimentation of sewage, sludge digestion, composting with town refuse.





(C) Screening of sewage, composting with town refuse, sludge digestion, sedimentation of sewage.





(D) Sedimentation of sewage, sludge digestion, screening of sewage, composting with town refuse.





Answers: (B)











Questions 41-50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.











41. List – I                              List - II





(Type of Study)                      (Feature)





(a) Case-Control Study           (i) Odd’s Ratio





(b) Ecological Study               (ii) Population Level





(c) Cohort Study                     (iii) Incidence





(d) Cross-sectional Study       (iv) Prevalence





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





Answers: (C)











42. List – I                                                                  List - II





(Type of data)                                                                         (Test of Significance)





(a) Quantitative data sample size less than 30            (i) χ2 test





(b) Qualitative data sample size more than 30            (ii) Standard error of difference between two proportions





(c) Quantitative data sample size more than 30          (iii) ‘t’-test





(d) Qualitative data sample size less than 30              (iv) Standard error of difference between two means





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)





(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





Answers: (A)











43. List – I                              List - II





(Types of Cancer)                   (Risk factor)





(a) Oral Cancer                        (i) Helicobacter Pylori





(b) Cervical Cancer                 (ii) Human Papillema Virus (HPV)





(c) Breast Cancer                    (iii) Tobacco





(d) Stomach Cancer                (iv) Positive Family History





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)





(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





Answers: (D)











44. List – I                              List - II





(Deficiency disease)                (Vitamins)





(a) Rickets                               (i) Vitamin C





(b) Scurvy                               (ii) Vitamin D





(c) Beri Beri                            (iii) Vitamin B1





(d) Megaloblastic Anaemia     (iv) Vitamin B12





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





Answers: (B)











45. List – I                                          List - II





(Providing Centres)                             (Normative Population)





(a) Community Health Centre            (i) 1,000





(b) Primary Health Centre                   (ii) 1,00,000





(c) Rural Sub Centre                           (iii) 5,000





(d) Anganwadi Centre                        (iv) 30,000





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)





Answers: (D)











46. List – I                              List - II





(Demographic Indicator)        (Process measured)





(a) TFR                                    (i) Population increase





(b) CBR                                  (ii) Average fertility





(c) NRR                                  (iii) Crude fertility





(d) CWR                                 (iv) Replacement level fertility





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)





Answers: (B)











47. List – I                                          List - II





(Diseases)                                            (Vectors)





(a) Epidemic Typhus                           (i) Tick





(b) Scrub Typhus                                 (ii) Mite





(c) Rocky Mountain spotted fever      (iii) Flea





(d) Murine Typhus                              (iv) Louse





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)





(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





Answers: (B)











48. List – I                                                      List - II





(Programmes/ Schemes)                                  (Benefits)





(a) Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram           (i) Cash assistance for delivery in government health centres.





(b) Janani Suraksha Yojana                             (ii) Free delivery in all public health institutions.





(c) Vandematram scheme                               (iii) Training health personnel in basic new born care and resuscitation





(d) Navajaat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram      (iv) Voluntary services by obstetrics and gynaecology experts for safe motherhood.





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)





(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)





Answers: (C)











49. List – I                  List - II





(Disease)                     (Endemic Region)





(a) Goitre                     (i) Bihar





(b) Malaria                   (ii) Eastern Uttar Pradesh





(c) Chikangunia           (iii) Assam Valley





(d) Kala Azar              (iv) Delhi





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answers: (Wrong question)











50. List – I                  List - II





(Food Stuff)                (Glycemic Index)





(a) Honey                    (i) 87





(b) Rice                       (ii) 48





(c) Sweet Potato         (iii) 33





(d) Milk                       (iv) 72





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)





Answers: (D)


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