TNPSC Master

1. DELNET was initially supported by:

(1) RRRLF

(2) NISSAT

(3) NIC

(4) INSDOC

Answer: (2)

2. Who wrote the Foreword to the first edition of ‘The Five Laws of Library Science’?

(1) B.I. Palmer

(2) Henry E. Bliss

(3) P.S. Sivaswamy Aiyer

(4) W.C. Berwick Sayers

Answer: (3)

3. ‘Keesing’s Record of World Events’ is published from:

(1) London

(2) France

(3) Germany

(4) Japan

Answer: (1)

4. The ‘Letter by Letter’ Method of alphabetization in Dictionary catalogue is known as:

(1) Nothing before something

(2) Something before nothing

(3) All through

(4) Something after more

Answer: (3)

5. International Standard Name Identifier (ISNI) consists of:

(1) 10 digits

(2) 12 digits

(3) 13 digits

(4) 16 digits

Answer: (4)

6. Identify the symbol of ‘Spiritual Experience and Mysticism’ as given by CC:

(1) ∆

(2) Σ

(3) 4

(4) MZA

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following is indicated in the third digit of DDC Third Summary?

(1) Schedule

(2) Class

(3) Section

(4) Division

Answer: (3)

8. ‘Cannon of Reticence’ is a canon for:

(1) Idea Plane

(2) Verbal Plane

(3) Notational Plane

(4) Both Idea and Notational Planes

Answer: (2)

9. Positive Correlation occurs when:

(1) Two variables move in opposite direction

(2) Both variables move in a zigzag way

(3) Two variables move in the same direction

(4) Both variables are constant

Answer: (3)

10. Ex post Facto study is a type of:

(1) Diagnostic design

(2) Quasi-experimental design

(3) Descriptive design

(4) Historical design

Answer: (2)

11. Who proposed Big Six Information Literacy Skills?

(1) C.D. Ferguson

(2) G. Dunsire

(3) E.A. Fox

(4) M.B. Eisenberg and R.E. Berkowitz

Answer: (4)

12. Which of the following statements are wrong with reference to INB?

(a) Excludes musical scores

(b) First appeared in 1951

(c) Classified part follows CC, but DDC numbers assigned at the bottom

(d) The main entries are in Roman Script

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

13. The protection of non-personal data in Transborder Data Flow uses which of the following legal instruments?

(a) Copyright

(b) Patent

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Trademark

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (4)

14. From which universities S.R. Ranganathan was awarded D. Litt (Honoris Causa)?

(a) University of Delhi

(b) University of Madras

(c) University of London

(d) University of Pittsburgh

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (a) and (c) are correct

(3) (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (a) and (d) are correct

Answer: (4)

15. Information about recent floods in Bihar can be found in:

(a) Asian Recorder

(b) Data India

(c) India; a reference annual

(d) Statistical Abstract, India

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (a) and (c) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (1)

16. Which of the following questions fall under the category of ready reference service?

(a) Population of Varanasi

(b) Height of Qutub Minar

(c) Concept of Symbiosis

(d) Collection development in university libraries

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

17. Identify the basic parts of Colon Classification:

(a) Rules

(b) Schedule of classification

(c) Schedule of classics and sacred books

(d) Geographical schedule

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

18. Identify the budget heads of non-recurring budget:

(a) Periodical subscription

(b) Maintenance of equipment

(c) Building extension

(d) Infrastructure development

Code:

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following are non-parametric tests?

(a) Anova test

(b) Spearman correlation coefficient

(c) Z test

(d) Chi-Square test

Code:

(1) (b) and (d) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (1)

20. Which of the following are work analysis techniques according to Edward Evans?

(a) PERT – CPM

(b) GANTT - Charts

(c) Operation research

(d) Cost - effectiveness

Code:

(1) (d) and (b) are correct

(2) (b) and (c) are correct

(3) (a) and (c) are correct

(4) (c) and (d) are correct

Answer: (1)

21. Transborder Data Flow includes (in the definition given by United Nations) movements across national boundaries:

(a) Machine-readable data for processing, storage or retrieval

(b) Media products (mass diffusion)

(c) Machine - readable data or magnetic tapes

(d) Machine - readable data on discs

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: (3)

22. Which of the following are the Canons for characteristics as enunciated by S.R. Ranganathan?

(a) Canon of relevance

(b) Canon of Permanance

(c) Canon of differentiation

(d) Canon of Interpetation in Chain

Code:

(1) (b), (c), (d) are correct

(2) (a), (b), (c) are correct

(3) (a), (c), (d) are correct

(4) (a), (b), (d) are correct

Answer: (2)

23. Arrange the following libraries in the chronological sequence of their emergence:

(a) Rampur Raza Library, UP

(b) Asiatic Society Library, Bombay

(c) Connemara Public Library, Chennai

(d) Sarasvati Mahal Library, Tanjore

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (c), (d), (a), (b)

(4) (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (1)

24. Arrange the following printing technologies according to their emergence:

(a) Movable type

(b) Dot-Matrix printer

(c) Woodblock printing

(d) Screen printing

Code:

(1) (d), (c), (b) and (a)

(2) (c), (a), (d) and (b)

(3) (c), (d), (b) and (a)

(4) (d), (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (2)

25. Arrange the following steps of digital preservation in their sequential order:

(a) Refreshing

(b) Encapsulation

(c) Emulation

(d) Data archiving

Code:

(1) (c), (b), (d), (a)

(2) (d), (b), (a), (c)

(3) (a), (d), (b), (c)

(4) (a), (c), (b), (d)

Answer: (4)

26. Arrange in sequence the following steps followed in Programming:

(a) Programme Code

(b) Programme Documentation

(c) Program Test

(d) Programme Design

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (a), (c), (b)

(3) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(4) (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (2)

27. Arrange the following Open Access Initiatives/Policy Statements according to the year of their adoption/declaration at international level.

(a) The Coalition of Open Access Policy Institutions (COAPI)

(b) The Berlin Declaration on Open Access to Knowledge in the Sciences and Humanities (BDOAKS and H)

(c) The Budapest Open Access Initiatives (BOAI)

(d) Scholarly Publishing and Academic Resources Coalition (SPARC)

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (c), (b), (a)

(3) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(4) (c), (d), (b), (a)

Answer: (2)

28. Match the following indexing/abstracting publications with the corresponding institution.

List – I                                                          List - II

(a) Indian Citation Index                          (i) ICMR

(b) INSPEL (Retrospective, 1970)          (ii) ICAR

(c) Med Ind                                             (iii) Diva Enterprises, Delhi

(d) Indian Animal Science Abstracts       (iv) NASSDOC

Code:

             (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)

(2)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)         (ii)

(3)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(4)        (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)

Answer: (2)

29. Match the following terms with the corresponding authors who coined them:

             List – I                     List - II

(a) Knowledge Economy     (i) Mikhailov, Chernyi and Gilyarevskii

(b) Documentation              (ii) Calvin Mooers

(c) Informatics                    (iii) Paul Otlet

(d) Information Retrieval   (iv) Peter Drucker

Code:

           (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)

(2)        (i)         (iv)       (ii)        (iii)

(3)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)         (ii)

(4)        (iii)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)

Answer: (3)    

30. Match the following:

                List – I                                          List - II

(a) Bibliography                            (i) Number of people recently died of dengue in Delhi

(b) Biography                                (ii) Number of volumes of a book

(c) Statistical Source                     (iii) Number of siblings of Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Newspaper Digest                   (iv) Number of primary schools in Mumbai

Code:

             (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)

(2)        (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (iv)

(3)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)

(4)        (iii)       (iv)       (ii)        (i)

Answer: (3)

31. Match the fundamental categories with corresponding examples:

               List – I                        List - II

(a) Asia                           (i) Matter

(b) Book Selection         (ii) Personality

(c) Microfilms               (iii) Energy

(d) University Libraries (iv) Space

Code:

             (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)         (ii)

(2)        (iii)       (ii)        (iv)       (i)

(3)        (ii)        (iii)       (i)         (iv)

(4)        (i)         (iv)       (ii)        (iii)

Answer: (1)

32. Match the following ACI symbols (CC 6th edition) with their corresponding Isolates:

            List – I                             List - II

(a) p                        (i) Conference

(b) k                       (ii) Encyclopedia

(c) w                     (iii) Biography

(d) n                      (iv) Serials

Code:

              (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)

(2)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(3)        (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (iv)

(4)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)

Answer: (2)

33. Match the following NISO (National Information Standard Organisation) standards with their corresponding descriptions applicable to Libraries:

                         List – I               List - II

(a) Z39.2                                  (i) Guidelines for Abstracts

(b) Z39.4                                  (ii) ISSN

(c) Z39.9                                 (iii) Guidelines for Indexes and Related Information Retrieval devices

(d) Z39.14                              (iv) Information for interchange format

Code:

             (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)

(2)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(3)        (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)

(4)        (iii)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)

Answer: (1)

34. Match the following devices with their mediums/system:

             List – I                               List - II

(a) Pen drive               (i) Web server device

(b) I-pad                      (ii) Communication device

(c) Wi-fi modem         (iii) Tablet run on iOS mobile operating system

(d) Cloud computing   (iv) Storage device

Code:

               (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (ii)        (iv)       (i)         (iii)

(2)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)

(3)        (i)         (iv)       (ii)        (iii)

(4)        (iii)       (ii)        (i)         (iv)

Answer: (2)

35. Match the following Web tools with their corresponding features:

                      List – I              List - II

(a) Web 1.0                           (i) People Centric and participative/bi-directional

(b) Web 2.0                          (ii) Linking and Integrating Global files

(c) Web 3.0                         (iii) Man-Machine Interaction with critical mass of participation and use of Al

(d) Web 4.0                          (iv) Static and mono-directional

Code:

              (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)

(2)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(3)        (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)

(4)        (iii)       (i)         (iv)       (ii)

Answer: (1)

36. Match the following research methods with their corresponding explanation:

              List – I                     List - II

(a) Formalized research      (i) Interpretation of abstract ideas

(b) Conceptual research      (ii) Survey and fact finding enquiries

(c) Descriptive research     (iii) Formulation of theory

(d) Fundamental research   (iv) Substantial structure and hypothesis to be tested

Code:

              (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)        (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)

(2)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)

(3)        (iii)       (iv)       (i)         (ii)

(4)        (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)

Answer: (4)

37. Assertion (A): Extending the library’s reach through strategic partnership, collaborative relationship is an important goal for any academic library.

Reason (R): Partnerships do not allow participating organisations to yield efficiency.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

38. Assertion (A): Science rests itself upon a series of postulates or assumptions which are themselves fundamentally unproved and unprovable.

Reason (R): One can only assert that these postulates are true, can believe them, but cannot prove them as they deal with the validity of human knowledge.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (3)

39. Assertion (A): Implementation of TQM in Libraries is quite challenging.

Reason (R): Some of the key essentials, like open and cooperative culture and employees responsiveness for customer’s satisfaction, required for successful implementation of TQM, are very much noticed in a library.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

40. Assertion (A): Web 2.0 has wholly wiped out the digital divide, particularly with regard to individual ability, access to and engagement with technology.

Reason (R): Use of Web 2.0 in learning and teaching is still in an embryonic state.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

41. Assertion (A): It is not economical to store and read video data from secondary storage devices.

Reason (R): Video data require enormous disk storage as image compression ratio is high.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (2)

42. Assertion (A): Participatory action research follows the conventional model of pure research in which members of the communities under study are treated as passive subjects.

Reason (R): In participatory action research no member of the communities under study participate throughout the research process.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (4)

43. Assertion (A): The mean is a measure of dispersion.

Reason (R): The mean is based on every obervation and is representative of the whole population.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (3)

44. Assertion (A): Access to e-collection of a library via Login and password recognition is mostly used than access via IP-address.

Reason (R): Access via IP-address presents a challenge in controlling the distribution of password to non-affiliates.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, and (R) is false

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true

(3) (A) is false and (R) is true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (4)

45. Assertion (A): Interlibrary loan departments in libraries will be affected in positive ways by the development of Massive Digital Libraries.

Reason (R): Because the increased availability of online resources will considerably reduce the need for sending books through traditional mail resulting in the decrease of the workloads of the inter-library loan departments.

Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on your understanding of the passage. (Question Nos. 46 - 50).

           The medical community is not homogeneous. We have a wide range of kinds of work and, hence, we have a wide range of kinds of needs for information. Therefore, solutions for better access by investigators to information that they need might not help practicing physicians at all. 

           Science in medicine and the practice of medicine differ greatly. How they differ was described succinctly by Peter Mere Latham well over a century ago: “Medicine is a strange mixture of speculation and action. We have to cultivate a science and to exercise an art. The calls of science are upon our leisure and our choice; the calls of practice are of daily emergence and necessity”. Latham’s point is well made, but it is not quite detailed enough for our considerations here. Let me sketch out how the information needs of investigators and physicians differ.

         (1) An investigator usually poses one question (or faces one problem) at a time and works on it for a long period. A physician constantly faces a quick succession of problems that call for rapid solutions.

         (2) The investigator’s problem is usually narrow and readily defined. The problems dealt with by the physician tend to be highly various and fogged by many uncertainties.

        (3) An investigator’s earnings are not tightly coupled to how he spends time from minute to minute and hour to hour. A physician’s earnings are tightly coupled to every day’s working hours and how they are spent.

These differences lead to differences in kinds of information needs and searches.

        (1) The investigator tends to need an exhaustive search of information sources (“the literature”) but at infrequent intervals. The time available for the search is relatively large and can be carried out at relatively low cost in “purchase” and in “time-cost”.

        (2) The physician needs quick access to valid information of immediate and high utility. The time available for a search is small. The “time-cost” for a search is high. The physician has to work mainly with thoroughly digested concepts and with most of the needed data carried in his head; the brain has a very rapid access time. Additional facts needed for clinical decisions must be accessed very rapidly.

         Both investigator and physician occasionally have needs like those of the other. The investigator may need quick access to a small and specific piece of technical information; the physician may be willing occasionally to embark on a broad search to deal with a rare problem. Further, both have ongoing needs for general awareness of new developments that may come eventually to have high utility. These differences seem to me to determine how investigators and physicians use or do not use various kinds of information materials and sources. 

        Investigators tend to use reports of specific and individual research efforts-journal articles. They tend to carry out searches themselves or to assign them to close professional associates. They have time to assess and to digest individual papers. Synoptic information, such as that in review articles, is used mainly for orientation to a new problem.

46. How do Peter Mere Latham differentiate calls of ‘Science’ (in Medicine) from that of the ‘practice’ (of medicine) ?

(1) The calls of science are upon one’s leisure and choice, where as the calls of practice are of daily emergence.

(2) ‘Medicine’ is a non exotic mixture of certainty, while practice of medicine is an infrequent phenomenon.

(3) Science is not a study of the natural world, where as practice is based on facts learned through a formal study.

(4) Science is not a method of reconciling practical ends with scientific laws, where as ‘practice’ do not allow repeated exercise to make one proficient.

Answer: (1)

47. How Lathams differentiates the information needs of Investigators from that of Physicians.

(1) An Investigator unconventionally faces with multiple problems at a single point of time and works on it for a long period, while a physician constantly faces slow-witted succession of problems that hardly warrant rapid solution.

(2) An investigator ordinarily faces one question/problem at a time which is usually narrow and rapidly defined, while a physician constantly faces a quick succession of varied problems fogged by many uncertainties.

(3) Earnings of an Investigator are strictly coupled to how he spends time from minute to minute, whereas a Physician’s earnings are not tightly coupled to every day working hours.

(4) Information needs of Investigators are solely academic, where as the needs of Physicians are both academic and utilitarian.

Answer: (2)

48. Who tends to need quick access to valid Information of immediate and high quality?

(1) An Investigator

(2) A Screwball

(3) A Physician

(4) A Teacher

Answer: (3)

49. Why ‘time cost’ for a search made by a Physician is higher?

(1) Slow access to invalid Information.

(2) Access to information that are distant in need and of less utility.

(3) Exhaustive search of information sources.

(4) Rapid access to high quality information needed for clinical decision.

Answer: (4)

50. Why the Investigators tend to carryout searches themselves?

(1) They have time to assess and digest individual papers.

(2) They are unaware of appropriate information sources.

(3) They have no access to information/literature they need.

(4) They cannot afford time to search, identify, and digest the articles of high quality.

Answer: (1)

P.A.C.Ramasamy Raja Polytechnic College
Rajapalayam-626 108,
Virudhunagar District, Tamilnadu
Phone : 04562-254100

Government Aided Posts - 2018

P.A.C.Ramasamy Raja Polytechnic College has announced for Non-Teaching Posts of Junior Assistant, Store Keeper, Typist and Record Clerk. These post will be appointed for Government Aided Category.  So Interested & Eligible candidates should apply before the last date of 20.09.2018

Last Date to Apply: 20.09.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: Non-Teaching Posts in following categories
1. Junior Assistant - 01 Post (SCA)
2. Junior Assistant - 01 Post (MBC/DNC)
3. Store Keeper - 01 Post (OC)
4. Typist - 01 Post (OC)
5. Record Clerk - 01 Post (OC)

Total Vacancies: 05 Posts 

Qualification: SSLC

Place of Posting: Rajapayalam

Age Limit:  GT- 18 to 35

Scale of Pay: Rs.19500-62000/- + Allowance

How to Apply: Interested candidates should send their CV along with related document, should reach to the following address.
The Principal,
Following Documents should be Enclosed with Curriculum Vitae ****

• Attested Copies of all Certificate (From 10th Standard )
• Attested Copies of Community Certificate
• Attested Copies Employment Registration Number
• Attested Copies of  Experience Certificate (If available should be enclosed)

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching ? Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) 

(2) (b), (c) and (e) 

(3) (a), (c) and (f) 

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching ?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

3. In the two sets given below Set - I indicates methods of teaching while Set - II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code :

           Set - I                Set - II

(Method of teaching) (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas

(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids procedure

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) 

(2) (b), (c) and (d) 

(3) (a), (c) and (e) 

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

5. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

6. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the types of research, while Set - II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.  

Set - I                                               Set - II

(Research types)                        (Characteristics)

(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(b) Applied research        (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(c) Action research           (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(d) Evaluative research     (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

Code :

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

8. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater ?

(1) Preparing research summary 

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference 

(4) Participation in a workshop

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15 :

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?

(a) Aspirations of people 

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context 

(d) Strategic interests

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only 

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

12. More productive employment demands :

(1) Pervasive use of technology 

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations 

(4) Large industries

13. Absence of technology would lead to :

(a) Less pollution 

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(c) Low value addition 

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Code :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only 

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only 

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

14. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

(1) Unbridled technological growth 

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sidelining environmental issues 

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

15. Envisioning a developed India requires :

(1) Aspiration to become a major economic player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of :

(1) selective expectation of performance

(2) selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) selective attention

(4) selective morality

17. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

18. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

19. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process ?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Code :

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f) 

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

21. The next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ? , ... is :

(1) 36 

(2) 47 

(3) 59 

(4) 63

22. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ? , ...is :

(1) ZKU 

(2) ZCA 

(3) ZKW 

(4) KZU

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

(1) LOQOZEH 

(2) HLZEOOQ 

(3) ZELHOQO 

(4) LQOOFZH

24. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as :

(1) Aunt 

(2) Mother 

(3) Sister 

(4) Daughter

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 : 2. The numbers are :

(1) 16, 40 

(2) 20, 50 

(3) 28, 70 

(4) 32, 80

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement ?

(1) Mathematical 

(2) Psychological 

(3) Analogical 

(4) Deductive

27. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.  

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) 

(2) (b) and (c) 

(3) (c) and (d) 

(4) (d) and (a)

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

(1) Law of identity 

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature 

(4) Uniformity of nature

29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true ? Select the correct

code :

Propositions :

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code :

(1) (a) and (b) 

(2) (a) only 

(3) (c) and (d) 

(4) (b) only

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method ?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 31 - 35 based on the data

contained in the table.

31. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year ?

(1) 2013 

(2) 2014 

(3) 2015 

(4) 2016

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?

(1) 2.64 

(2) 2.72 

(3) 2.79 

(4) 2.85

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :

(1) 2012 

(2) 2013 

(3) 2014 

(4) 2015

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

(1) 2013 

(2) 2014 

(3) 2015 

(4) 2016

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012-2016 ?

(1) 104 

(2) 102.1 

(3) 108 

(4) 100.1

36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?

P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.

Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

(1) P only 

(2) Q only 

(3) P and Q 

(4) Neither P nor Q

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous Laptop models. Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse 

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive 

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message ?

(1) ram@test.com

(2) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com

(3) ram@test.com; rama@test.com

(4) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit :

(a) Kilobyte 

(b) Byte 

(c) Megabyte

(d) Terabyte 

(e) Gigabyte 

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code :

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e) 

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d) 

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

(1) P only 

(2) Q only 

(3) P and Q only 

(4) P and R only

41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in :

(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) wasteland development

(c) dam and water holding structures

(d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only 

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?

(1) Earthquakes 

(2) Landslides 

(3) Hurricanes 

(4) Droughts

43. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

Reason (R) : The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP),

Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE 

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE 

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry 

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off 

(4) Thermal power plants

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :

(a) The United States of America 

(b) Australia

(c) China 

(d) United Kingdom (U.K.)

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 

(4) (a) and (c) only

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

48. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

(a) the Central Information Commissioner

(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner

(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission

(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?

(a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(c) It is an accounting exercise.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) (b) and (d) only 

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only 

(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only 

(4) (a) and (b) only

2000 Temporary School Teacher will Appoint Soon: Honorable Minister: 2000 தற்காலிக ஆசிரியர் காலிப்பணியிடங்கள் நிரப்பப்பட உள்ளதாக மாண்புமிகு பள்ளிக்கல்வித்துறை அமைச்சர் செங்கோட்டையன் அவர்கள் தெரிவித்துள்ளார். தற்காலிக ஆசிரியர்களாக நியமிக்கப்படும் ஆசிரியர்களுக்கு மாதம் 7000 ஊதியம் வழங்கப்படும் என்றும் மேலும் இப்பணியிடத்திற்கு டெட் தேர்வில் வெற்றிபெற்றவர்கள் நியமிக்கப்படுவார்கள் என்றும் தெரிவித்துள்ளார்.

TNPSC Group 2 Current Affairs Model Questions - Dinamalar: Dinamalar Newspaper Published important Current Affairs Model question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Group 2 Exam. In these model questions prepared by Aayakudi Maraththadi Payirchi Maiyam. 

Courtesy: Dinamalar

TNPSC Group 2 Current Affairs Model Questions - Dinamalar: Dinamalar Newspaper Published important Current Affairs Model question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Group 2 Exam. In these model questions prepared by Aayakudi Maraththadi Payirchi Maiyam. 

Courtesy: Dinamalar

TNPSC Group 2 Current Affairs Model Questions - Dinamalar: Dinamalar Newspaper Published important Current Affairs Model question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Group 2 Exam. In these model questions prepared by Aayakudi Maraththadi Payirchi Maiyam. 

Courtesy: Dinamalar

Courtesy: Dinamalar

Application are invited for the post of  Veterinary Consultant in Aavin at Kancheepuram and Thiruvallur Districts. Interested candidates should attend walk-in-interview on 18th September, 2018

Advertisement Ref.No.6820/Admin/2018  Dated: 18.04.2018

Date of Walk-in-Interview: 18.09.2018

Vacancy Details:

Name of the Post : Veterinary Consultant - 02 Posts

Number of Vacancies: 02 Posts

Qualification: B.V.Sc & A.H

Mode of Posting: On Contract Basis

Place of Posting: Kancheepuram - Thiruvallur District

Course Details

Name of the Course: Degree in Nursing

Qualification: HSc (+2)

Age Limit: 17-35 years as on 31.12.2018

Important Dates: 

Application Fee: Rs.400/-

How to Apply: Application Form will be issued on all Government Medical College and District Head Quarters Hospital. Filled in Application form should reach to the following address.

The Secretary

Selection Committe

No.162. E.V.R Periyar High Road, 

Kilpauk, Chennai-10.

For more details please refer official Website: www.tnhealth.org  / www.tnmedicalselection.org

 

National Institute of Plant Health Management 

 Department of Agriculture, 

Government of India 

 Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500030

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post and Number of Vacancies:

Non-Teaching Vacancies

1. Financial Adviser - 01 Post

2. Assistant Director - 01 Post

3. Assistant Scientific Officer - 01 Post

4. Stenographer - 01 Post

5. Lower Division Clerk - 02 Posts

6. Multi Tasking Staff - 01 Post

Total Vacancies: 07 Posts

How to Apply: Interested candidates should submit their applications on prescribed format. filled in application form along with related documents should reach to the concerned Address.

Tamil Nadu Teacher Education University
Gangaiamman Koil Street, Karapakkam
Chennai -600 097
Tamil Nadu

Last Date to Apply: 27.09.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: Associate Professor in following Departments
1. Pedagogical Sciences - 01 Post
2. Value Education - 03 Posts (Including 1 Post for Assistant Professor)
3. Educational Psychology - 02 Posts
4. Educational Technology - 01 Posts
5. Curriculum Planning and Evaluation- 02 Posts
6. Educational Planning and Administration - 01 Post

 Number of Vacancies: 10 Posts

Educational Qualifications: As per UGC. Norms

How to Apply: Interested candidates should download the application form form and filled in application form should reach to the concerned address.

For Official Website of TNTEU: http://www.tnteu.ac.in/

Tamil Nadu Teacher Education University
Gangaiamman Koil Street, Karapakkam
Chennai -600 097
Tamil Nadu

Last Date to Apply: 27.09.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: 
1. Assistant Professors - 01 Post
2. Associate Professors - 09 Posts
3. Assistant Registrar - 01 Post
4. Superintendents - 09 Posts
5. Assistant - 01 Post
6. Junior Assistant cum computer Operators - 06 Posts
7. Office Assistants - 05 Posts
8. Drivers - 03 Posts

 Number of Vacancies: 25 Posts

Educational Qualifications: As per Govt. Norms

How to Apply: Interested candidates should download the application form form and filled in application form should reach to the concerned address.

For Official Website of TNTEU: http://www.tnteu.ac.in/

TNPSC General Knowledge Model Questions  - Dinamani (Dated: 01.09.2018): Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Exam. In these model questions prepared by Sankar IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers: 


Courtesy: Dinamani

TNPSC Group 2 Current Affairs Model Questions - Dinamalar: Dinamalar Newspaper Published important Current Affairs Model question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public  Service Commission) Group 2 Exam. In these model questions prepared by Aayakudi Maraththadi Payirchi Maiyam. 

Courtesy: Dinamalar