1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?
Statements:
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code:
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (f)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
Answer Key: 3
2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?
(1) Prior experience of the learner
(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(3) Peer groups of the learner
(4) Family size from which the learner comes
Answer Key: 1
3. Match the following:
Set – I (Methods of Teaching)
(a) Lecturing
(b) Discussion in groups
(c) Brainstorming
(d) Programmed instructional procedure
Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)
(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided
(ii) Production of large number of ideas
(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(iv) Use of teaching-aids
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Code:
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer Key: 3
4. Identify the formative evaluation procedures:
(a) A teacher awards grades after transaction
(b) Teacher provides corrective feedback during interaction
(c) Unit test marks
(d) Teacher clarifies doubts in class
(e) Reporting performance to parents every 3 months
(f) Motivation raised by Q&A session
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (e)
(4) (b), (d), (f)
Answer Key: 4
5. Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.
Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.
Code:
(1) Both true, R explains A
(2) Both true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Answer Key: 3
6. Match the following:
Set – I (Research types)
(a) Fundamental research
(b) Applied research
(c) Action research
(d) Evaluative research
Set – II (Characteristics)
(i) Finding extent of perceived impact
(ii) Developing explanation through theory
(iii) Improving existing situation through interventions
(iv) Exploring theory for various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Code:
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Answer Key: 1
7. Cyclic nature of action research:
(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan
(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect
Answer Key: 4
8. Scientific method – nearest sequence:
(1) Suggested solution → Deducing → Perceiving → Locating → Testing
(2) Perceiving → Locating → Hypothesizing → Deducing → Testing
(3) Defining → Identifying causes → Population → Sampling → Collecting → Analyzing
(4) Causal factors → Defining → Hypothesis → Sampling → Collecting → Conclusion
Answer Key: 2
9. Research ethics concerns:
(1) Thesis format
(2) Data analysis
(3) Defining population
(4) Evidence-based reporting
Answer Key: 4
10. Creative & critical thinking is most nurtured in:
(1) Research summary
(2) Seminar presentation
(3) Participation in research conference
(4) Participation in workshop
Answer Key: 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15 :
If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension, time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
11. Indicative of the fourth dimension:
Options:
(a) Aspirations of people
(b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in global context
(d) Strategic interests
Answer Key: 3
12. Productive employment demands:
(1) Pervasive use of technology
(2) Limiting competition
(3) Geo-political considerations
(4) Large industries
Answer Key: 1
13. Absence of technology leads to:
(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest
Code:
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)
Answer Key: 2
14. Advantage of technology:
(1) Unbridled growth
(2) Importing machinery
(3) Sidelining environment
(4) Lifting people to dignity
Answer Key: 4
15. Developed India requires:
(1) Major economic aspirations
(2) Dependence on foreign projects
(3) Short-term focus
(4) Core technological strengths
Answer Key: 4
16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:
(1) Selective expectation of performance
(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups
(3) Selective attention
(4) Selective morality
Answer Key: 3
17. Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Initial messages to students need not be critical to establish interactions.
Reason (R): More control over communication means more control over learning.
Code:
(1) Both A & R true, R explains A
(2) Both A & R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Answer Key: 4
18. Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Communicating well in classroom is a natural ability.
Reason (R): Effective teaching demands knowledge of communication process.
Code:
(1) Both A & R true, R explains A
(2) Both A & R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Answer Key: 4
19. Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.
Reason (R): A teacher does not assume that students’ responses are purposive.
Code:
(1) Both A & R true, R explains A
(2) Both A & R true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true
Answer Key: 3
20. Human communication process – Correct statements:
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.
(d) Communication cannot break down.
(e) More communication means more effective learning.
(f) Value of classroom learning is not an issue for students.
Code:
(1) (a), (c), (e), (f)
(2) (b), (d), (e), (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (d), (e), (f)
Answer Key: 3
21. Next term in the series −1, 5, 15, 29, ?
(1) 36
(2) 47
(3) 59
(4) 63
Answer Key: 2
22. Next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ?
(1) ZKU
(2) ZCA
(3) ZKW
(4) KZU
Answer Key: 3
23. If VARANASI → WCUESGZQ, code for KOLKATA is:
(1) LOQOZEH
(2) HLZEOOQ
(3) ZELHOQO
(4) LQOOFZH
Answer Key: 4
**24. Introducing Rakesh, a woman said: “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.”
The woman is related to Rakesh as:**
(1) Aunt
(2) Mother
(3) Sister
(4) Daughter
Answer Key: 3
25. Two numbers are in ratio 2 : 5. Adding 16 to both makes ratio 1 : 2. The numbers are:
(1) 16, 40
(2) 20, 50
(3) 28, 70
(4) 32, 80
Answer Key: 4
26. The statement uses which kind of reasoning?
“Superiority of intellect depends upon concentration like a concave mirror collects rays.”
(1) Mathematical
(2) Psychological
(3) Analogical
(4) Deductive
Answer Key: 3
27. Valid conclusions from premises:
(A) Most dancers are physically fit.
(B) Most singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
(a) Most singers are physically fit.
(b) Most dancers are singers.
(c) Most physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most physically fit persons are singers.
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (a)
Answer Key: 2
28. Presupposition of inductive reasoning is:
(1) Law of identity
(2) Unchangeability in nature
(3) Harmony in nature
(4) Uniformity of nature
Answer Key: 4
29. If “domestic animals are hardly ferocious” is false, what is certainly true?
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious
(b) Most domestic animals are ferocious
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious
Code:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer Key: 1
30. Incorrect statement about Venn diagram method:
(1) Tests validity of arguments
(2) Represents both premises in one diagram
(3) Requires two overlapping circles for two premises
(4) Can represent classes and propositions
Answer Key: 3
31–35: Rice Production Table Questions (values unchanged)
31. Highest percentage increase in consumption over previous year:
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer Key: 2
32. Population of country in 2014 (million):
(1) 2.64
(2) 2.72
(3) 2.79
(4) 2.85
Answer Key: 3
33. Highest ratio of exports to consumption:
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer Key: 1
34. Year with highest population:
(1) 2013
(2) 2014
(3) 2015
(4) 2016
Answer Key: 4
35. Average rice consumption (million kg) 2012–2016:
(1) 104
(2) 102.1
(3) 108
(4) 100.1
Answer Key: 4
36. ICT – correct statement(s):
P: ICT = Indian Classical Technology
Q: Convergence of AV, telephone & computer networks
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer Key: 2
37. New lightweight, low-power laptop uses:
(1) USB mouse
(2) Faster RAM
(3) Blu-ray drive
(4) Solid State Drive
Answer Key: 4
38. Email fields – which addresses will ‘swami’ see?
Answer Key: 2
39. Correct order of storage units (smallest → largest):
(a) KB
(b) Byte
(c) MB
(d) TB
(e) GB
(f) Bit
Code:
(1) f, b, a, c, d, e
(2) f, b, a, d, e, c
(3) f, b, a, c, e, d
(4) f, b, a, d, c, e
Answer Key: 3
40. True statements about memory:
P: ROM is volatile
Q: RAM is volatile
R: Secondary memory is volatile
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) P and R
Answer Key: 2
41. Fly ash usefulness:
(a) Agriculture
(b) Wasteland development
(c) Dams
(d) Bricks
Answer Key: 4
42. Natural disaster with no definite beginning–end:
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Landslides
(3) Hurricanes
(4) Droughts
Answer Key: 4
43. Assertion–Reason (Indoor air pollution)
(1) Both A & R true, R explains A
Answer Key: 1
44. Correct sequence of contribution to power generation in India:
TPP, LHP, NE, RE
(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE
(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE
Answer Key: 1
45. Major source of river pollution in India:
(1) Small industries
(2) Untreated sewage
(3) Agricultural runoff
(4) Thermal plants
Answer Key: 2
46. India has largest higher education system after:
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) UK
Answer Key: 4 → (a) & (c)
47. PMRF is for PhD students in:
(1) State & Central Universities
(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs
(3) All institutions in (2) + State Universities
(4) IITs & IISc
Answer Key: 4
48. Leader of Opposition is member of selection committees of:
(a) CIC
(b) CVC
(c) NHRC Chairperson
(d) NCW Chairperson
Answer Key: 2 → (a), (b), (c)
49. Correct about gender budgeting:
(a) Separate budget for women
(b) Assesses impact on women
(c) Accounting exercise
(d) Budgeting innovation
Answer Key: 1 → (b), (d)
50. Barriers to citizen-centric administration:
(a) Wooden attitude of civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation
(c) Awareness of rights
(d) Lack of job opportunities
Answer Key: 4 → (a), (b)
No comments:
Post a Comment