Showing posts with label Social Medicine and Community Health Paper II. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Social Medicine and Community Health Paper II. Show all posts

5/14/2019

UGC-NET Solved Paper - II in Social Medicine and Community Health (Previous Questions)

5/14/2019 0
UGC-NET Solved Paper - II in Social Medicine and Community Health (Previous Questions)




UGC-NET Social Medicine and Community  Health Solved Paper - II 

(Previous Original Questions)













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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Paper II 2012 June

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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Paper II 2012 December

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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Paper II 2013 June

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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Paper II 2013 September

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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Paper II 2013 December

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UGC NET - Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Paper II 2017

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7/21/2018

Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper II

7/21/2018 0
Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper II


Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



1. The following vaccine is a live attenuated bacterial vaccine:





(A) Measles





(B) BCG





(C) Salk Vaccine





(D) Hepatitis B Vaccine





Answer: (B)











2. Which of the following is an internationally notifiable disease?





(A) Diphtheria





(B) Tuberculosis





(C) Yellow Fever





(D) Malaria





Answer: (C)











3. Nested case – control study is a type of





(A) Retrospective study





(B) Prospective study





(C) Descriptive study





(D) Cross-sectional study





Answer: (B)











4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is an example of





(A) Point source epidemic





(B) Propagated epidemic





(C) Continuous epidemic





(D) Modern epidemic





Answer: (A)











5. Point prevalence overestimates the disease with





(A) High incidence





(B) Low incidence





(C) Low mortality





(D) High mortality





Answer: (C)











6. While studying health and illness, who propounded the notion of ‘Sick Role’ from among the following?





(A) Talcott Parsons





(B) Karl Marx





(C) Weber





(D) Francis Bacon





Answer: (A)











7. ‘Nirmal Gram Abhiyan’ deals with which of the following?





(A) Soft loan for the villages





(B) Education of the villagers





(C) Sanitation incentives for the villages





(D) State award for sanitation





Answer: (C)











8. The drug given prophylactically to prevent parent-to-child transmission of HIV infection under NACO is





(A) Zidovudine





(B) Nevirapine





(C) Ritonavir





(D) Saguinavir





Answer: (B)











9. The type of Pneumoconiosis that cotton dust causes is known as





(A) Bagassosis





(B) Byssinosis





(C) Anthrocosis





(D) Silicosis





Answer: (B)











10. Where is the WHO established international laboratory for monitoring and studying air pollution, located in India?





(A) Delhi





(B) Pune





(C) Nagpur





(D) Mumbai





Answer: (C)











11. Against which of the viral hepatitis, vaccine is currently available in India?





I. Hepatitis A





II. Hepatitis B





III. Hepatitis C





IV. Hepatitis D





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct.





(B) I and III are correct.





(C) I and IV are correct.





(D) II and IV are correct.





Answer: (A)











12. Correctly identify ICMR recommended dietary intakes for a normal adult male doing sedentary work.





I. Cereals – 460 gms





II. Milk – 250 gms





III. Green leafy vegetables – 100 gms





IV. Pulses – 40 gms





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct





(B) II and III are correct





(C) I and IV are correct





(D) II and IV are correct





Answer: (C)











13. Which of the following are measures of dispersion?





I. Mean Deviation





II. Mode





III. Standard Deviation





IV. Inter-quartile range





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct





(B) I, III and IV are correct





(C) II, III and IV are correct





(D) I and III are correct





Answer: (B)











14. Which of the following are parametric test of significance?





I. Analysis of variance





II. χ2 test





III. ‘t’ test





IV. ‘Z’ test





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct





(B) II and IV are correct





(C) I and III are correct





(D) I, III and IV are correct





Answer: (D)











15. Which of the following are probability sampling methods?





I. Simple Random Sampling





II. Cluster Sampling





III. Stratified Sampling





IV. Quota Sampling





Codes:





(A) II and IV are correct





(B) I, II and III are correct





(C) I, II and IV are correct





(D) II and III are correct





Answer: (B)











16. Grassroots level health workers who are salaried include:





I. Village Health Worker





II. Anganwadi Worker





III. Auxiliary Nurse Midwife





IV. Accredited Social Health Activist





Codes:





(A) I, II and III are correct





(B) I and IV are correct





(C) II and III are correct





(D) II, III and IV are correct





Answer: (Wrong question)











17. Medical tourism is fast becoming a growing industry in India. Name the States which are major contributors to medical tourism.





I. Kerala





II. Himachal Pradesh





III. Andhra Pradesh





IV. Rajasthan





Codes:





(A) II, III and IV are correct





(B) I, III and IV are correct





(C) I, II and IV are correct





(D) I, II and III are correct





Answer: (D)











18. The earlier centres for Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) through surrogacy in India were in which of the following States?





I. Karnataka





II. Gujarat





III. Delhi





IV. Maharashtra





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct





(B) II and IV are correct





(C) I and III are correct





(D) II, III and IV are correct





Answer: (B)











19. Correctly identify the inherent properties of a screening test:





I. Yield





II. Sensitivity





III. Specificity





IV. Predictive Accuracy





Codes:





(A) II and IV are correct





(B) I and III are correct





(C) I, II and IV are correct





(D) II, III and IV are correct





Answer: (D)











20. Which of the following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions?





I. Normal Distribution





II. Bimodal Distribution





III. ‘J’ shaped Distribution





IV. ‘V’ shaped Distribution





Codes:





(A) I, II and III are correct





(B) I and IV are correct





(C) II, III and IV are correct





(D) I and II are correct





Answer: (C)





Given below (21 to 30) consists of the two paired statements, Statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.











21. Assertion (A): Geometric mean is a commonly used measure in demography.





Reason (R): Population growth is exponential.





Answer: (A)











22. Assertion (A): When two live vaccines are to be administered simultaneously, it is recommended that they be given at different sites.





Reason (R): Live vaccines have all major and minor antigenic components.





Answer: (B)











23. Assertion (A): A selection bias can be controlled at the time of analysis by stratification.





Reason (R): Berksonian bias is an example of selection bias.





Answer: (D)











24. Assertion (A): Height for age is a stable measure of growth as opposed to weight for age.





Reason (R): Weight for age reflects only the present height status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also.





Answer: (A)              











25. Assertion (A): The prevalence of chronic non-communicable diseases is rising in the developing world.





Reason (R): There is a dual burden of communicable and non-communicable diseases in the developing world.





Answer: (B)











26. Assertion (A): It is postulated that 80% of the cancers are due to environmental factors.





Reason (R): The sites of the body most commonly affected in occupational cancers are skin, lungs, bladder and blood forming organs.





Answer: (B)











27. Assertion (A): More than 90% of HIV infections in India are transmitted through sexual mode of transmission.





Reason (R): Sexual mode of transmission is the most efficient mode of transmission.





Answer: (C)











28. Assertion (A): Workers in unorganised sector have poor access to services from Public Health Institutions.





Reason (R): People comprising the unorganised sector do not have documents to establish their identity and proof of residence.





Answer: (B)











29. Assertion (A): Bio social model of health allows for understanding the social determinants of health.





Reason (R): Social determinants play an important role in addressing the health problems.





Answer: (B)











30. Assertion (A): In some diseases the disease agent is not completely eliminated leading to carrier state.





Reason (R): Shedding of the disease agent in the discharges or excretions acts as a source of infection for other persons.





Answer: (B)











31. Identify the correct sequence in which the agents of following viral diseases were identified:





(A) Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1, Rotavirus





(B) Rotavirus, Hepatitis E, Hepatitis C, H1 N1





(C) Hepatitis C, Hepatitis B, Rotavirus, H1 N1





(D) Rotavirus, H1 N1, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C





Answer: (Wrong question)











32. Identify the correct order from lower to higher level of infrastructure under Vision 2020.





(A) Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence, Vision centers





(B) Vision centers, Center of excellence, Service centers, Training centers





(C) Vision centers, Service centers, Training centers, Center of excellence





(D) Center of excellence, Vision centers, Service centers, training centers





Answer: (C)











33. Write the descending order of achievement of immunization coverage (2010)?





(A) BCG, Measles, OPV3, Hep B3





(B) BCG, OPV3, Measles, Hep B3





(C) OPV3, BCG, Measles, Hep B3





(D) Measles, BCG, Hep B3, OPV3





Answer: (B)











34. Arrange the following data sources in chronological order of their establishment in India:





(A) Census, Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS





(B) Census, NFHS, DLHS, Health Statistics of India





(C) Health Statistics of India, NFHS, DLHS, Census





(D) Census, DLHS, NFHS, Health Statistics of India





Answer: (A)











35. Arrange the descending order of the following States according to their sex ratio at birth (2011):





(A) Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana, M.P.





(B) Kerala, M.P., Haryana, Gujarat





(C) Kerala, M.P. Gujarat, Haryana





(D) Haryana, M.P., Kerala, Gujarat





Answer: (C)











36. Identify the correct sequence of iron content of some Indian foodstuffs in descending order:





(A) Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves





(B) Garden cress seeds, Mint leaves, Rice flakes, Colocasia leaves





(C) Garden cress seeds, Rice flakes, Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves





(D) Mint leaves, Colocasia leaves, Rice flakes, Garden cress seeds





Answer: (B)











37. Identify correct sequence of invisible fat content of some foods in ascending order:





(A) Ragi, Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds





(B) Fenugreek seeds, Soya bean, Almonds, Ragi





(C) Soya bean, Ragi, Almonds, Fenugreek seeds





(D) Almonds, Soya bean, Fenugreek seeds, Ragi





Answer: (A)











38. Identify correct sequence of proportion of phenotypes of ABO blood groups in descending order.





(A) O, A, B, AB





(B) A, O, B, AB





(C) O, B, A, AB





(D) AB, A, B, O





Answer: (C)











39. Identify the correct ascending order of the protein content per 100 gm of the following foodstuffs:





(A) Soya bean, Bengal gram, Egg, Rice





(B) Rice, Egg, Bengal gram, Soya bean





(C) Bengal gram, Egg, Soya bean, Rice





(D) Egg, Soya bean, Rice, Bengal gram





Answer: (B)











40. Identify the correct descending order of the incubation period of the following diseases/conditions.





(A) Salmonella food poisoning, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Hepatitis B





(B) Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning, Hepatitis B





(C) Hepatitis B, Diphtheria, Chicken pox, Salmonella food poisoning





(D) Hepatitis B, Chicken pox, Diphtheria, Salmonella food poisoning





Answer: (D)











Question 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:











41. List – I (Modes of Intervention)                                       List – II (Examples)





(a) Health promotion                                                               i. Amputation of gangrenous toe





(b) Specific protection                                                                        ii. Sputum examination for AFB in suspected pulmonary tuberculosis cases





(c) Early diagnosis and prompt treatment                               iii. Immunization against measles





(d) Disability limitation                                                           iv. Family life education





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)





(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answer: (C)











42. List – I (Diseases)                                                 List – II (Signs)





(a) Chicken pox                                                           i. Koplik’s spots





(b) Diphtheria                                                              ii. Splenomegaly





(c) Measles                                                                  iii. Pseudomembrane





(d) Malaria                                                                  iv. Pleomorphic rash





Codes:





      a b c d





(A) i ii iv iii





(B) ii iii iv i





(C) iv iii ii i





(D) iv iii i ii





Answer: (D)











43. List – I (Place of International Conference)                                 List – II (Theme)





(a) Copenhagen                                                                                   i. Gender





(b) Durban                                                                                           ii. Climate change





(c) Cairo                                                                                              iii. Population





(d) Beijing                                                                                           iv. Social Development





Codes:





      a b c d





(A) ii iv iii i





(B) iv iii ii i





(C) iii ii i iv





(D) ii iii iv i





Answer: (A)











44. List – I (Millennium Development Goals)                        List – II (Theme)





(a) 1                                                                                         i. Reduce child mortality





(b) 4                                                                                         ii. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases





(c) 5                                                                                         iii. Eradicate extreme poverty





(d) 6                                                                                        iv. Improve maternal health





Codes:





      a b c d





(A) i ii iv iii





(B) iii iv i ii





(C) iii i iv ii





(D) ii i iv iii





Answer: (C)











45. List – I (International Organization)                                 List – II (Thrust Area)





(a) UNICEF                                                                            i. Development





(b) UNDP                                                                               ii. Children





(c) UNEP                                                                                iii. Population





(d) UNFPA                                                                             iv. Environment





Codes:





       a b c d





(A) ii i iii iv





(B) ii iii i iv





(C) ii i iv iii





(D) ii iv iii i





Answer: (C)











46. List – I (Deficiency)                                                         List – II (Manifestation)





(a) Thiamine                                                                            i. Neural tube defect





(b) Folic acid                                                                           ii. Pellagra





(c) Niacin                                                                                iii. Macrocytic Anemia





(d) Cyanocoba lamine                                                             iv. Beri-Beri





Codes:





       a b c d





(A) iv iii i ii





(B) i iii ii iv





(C) iv i iii ii





(D) iv i ii iii





Answer: (D)











47. List – I (Type of Graph)                                       List – II (Indication of)





(a) Ogive curve                                                           i. Correlation





(b) Bar chart                                                                ii. Area diagram





(c) Histogram                                                              iii. Discrete data





(d) Scatter diagram                                                     iv. Cumulative frequency





Codes:





       a b c d





(A) iv iii ii i





(B) iii ii i iii





(C) ii iii iv i





(D) i iii ii iv





Answer: (A)











48. List – I (Vaccine)                                                  List – II (Route of Administration)





(a) Yellow Fever                                                         i. Intradermal





(b) B.C.G.                                                                   ii. Intramuscular





(c) Vitamin A                                                              iii. Subcutaneous





(d) DPT                                                                       iv. Oral





Codes:





       a b c d





(A) iii i iv ii





(B) ii iii iv i





(C) iii ii iv i





(D) ii i iv iii





Answer: (A)











49. List – I (Biomedical waste)                                  List – II (Colour of the container)





(a) Human anatomical waste                                       i. Blue





(b) Catheters and I.V. sets                                          ii. Yellow





(c) Scalpel and Sharps                                                 iii. Black





(d) Discarded medicines                                             iv. Red





Codes:





      a b c d





(A) i ii iv iii





(B) iii i ii iv





(C) ii iii iv i





(D) ii iv i iii





Answer: (D)











50. List – I (Occupational cancers)                                         List – II (Risk factors)





(a) Skin                                                                                    i. Aniline Dye





(b) Lung                                                                                  ii. Tar





(c) Bladder                                                                              iii. Benzol





(d) Leukaemia                                                                         iv. Asbestos





Codes:





       a b c d





(A) ii i iii iv





(B) ii iv i iii





(C) i iii iv ii





(D) ii iv iii i





Answer: (B)


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Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II

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Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II


Social Medicine and Community Health 2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



1. The protein requirement for an Indian adult as per ICMR (Indian Council for Medical Research) is





(A) 0.5 gm/kg body weight





(B) 1.0 gm/kg body weight





(C) 1.5 gm/kg body weight





(D) 2.0 gm/kg body weight





Answers: (B)











2. The maximum permissible level of chlorides in drinking water is





(A) 200 mg/litre





(B) 400 mg/litre





(C) 600 mg/litre





(D) 800 mg/litre





Answers: (C)











3. “Health for All was adopted by the signatory countries after which of the following international meetings?





(A) International Conference on Population and Development.





(B) Alma Ata Declaration





(C) Earth Summit





(D) Beijing Conference





Answers: (B)











4. The rule of halves applies to which of the following non-communicable diseases?





(A) Diabetes





(B) Hypertension





(C) Cancer





(D) Blindness





Answers: (B)











5. The protein content of breast milk is





(A) 0.1 gm/100 ml





(B) 1.1 gm/100 ml





(C) 4.5 gm/100 ml





(D) 11 gm/100 ml





Answers: (B)











6. Denominator for Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is





(A) Total births





(B) Total live births





(C) Mid-year population





(D) Total deaths in population





Answers: (B)











7. Direct standardisation used for comparison of mortality rates between two countries is undertaken due to difference in





(A) Age-sex distribution





(B) Causes of death





(C) Life span of population





(D) Disease transition





Answers: (A)











8. Distinct feature at the start of cohart study is





(A) Exposure has occurred, disease has not occurred.





(B) Both exposure and disease have occurred.





(C) Disease has occurred in population with some common characteristics.





(D) Neither disease nor exposure has occurred.





Answers: (A)











9. Pregnancy rate with use of Copper T-T Cu 380A is





(A) 0 %





(B) 0.5 – 0.8 %





(C) 1.0 – 2.0 %





(D) 2.0 – 4.0 %





Answers: (B)











10. As per national immunization schedule first dose of measles vaccine is given at the age of





(A) six weeks





(B) ten weeks





(C) fourteen weeks





(D) nine months





Answers: (D)











11. The following are true about Case Control Study:





I. Rapid and inexpensive





II. Both exposure and outcome have occurred before the study.





III. Incidence rates can be computed.





IV. Controls are not suffering from the disease under the study.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) I & II are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











12. Following are true regarding point source epidemic:





I. Rapid rise and fall





II. Explosive





III. The Epidemic curve has 2 peaks, 1st peak due to primary cases and 2nd peak due to secondary cases.





IV. It is always infectious in nature.





(A) I, II and III are correct.





(B) I and II are correct.





(C) I, III and IV are correct.





(D) II and IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











13. Which of the following statements are correct regarding epidemiology of measles?





I. Incubation period is commonly 10 days from exposure.





II. Carrier state is common.





III. Pneumonia is the most common life threatening complication.





IV. There is a high secondary attack rate.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & II are correct.





(C) I & III are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











14. The critical determinants of a facility being declared as a ‘First Referral Unit’ are





I. Availability of surgical intervention





II. Bed strength of 100





III. New Born Care





IV. 24 hrs. Blood storage facility





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & III are correct.





(C) II & IV are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (D)











15. The following statements regarding Vitamin D are true:





I. Vitamin D is unique because it is derived from Sunlight and food both.





II. It is a Water soluble vitamin.





III. It occurs only in foods of plant origin.





IV. Its deficiency leads to rickets.





(A) I & II are correct.





(B) II & III are correct.





(C) III & IV are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (D)











16. The following statements regarding water purification are true :





I. The components of a typical water purification system comprise storage, filtration and disinfection.





II. The vital layer of a slow sand filter is known as “Schmutzdeste”.





III. Chlorination is a supplement but not a substitute for sand filtration.





IV. Slow sand filter occupies small area as compared to rapid sand filter.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) II, III & IV are correct.





(D) I, III & IV are correct.





Answers: (A)











17. Name the committee(s) which has contributed in the health planning of India.





I. Bhore Committee





II. Mudaliar Committee





III. Srivastava Committee





IV. Verma Committee





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I & III are correct.





(C) III & IV are correct.





(D) II & IV are correct.





Answers: (A)











18. AYUSH is the alternative system of medicine which includes the following:





I. Homeopathy





II. Siddha





III. Reiki





IV. Ayurveda





(A) I & IV are correct.





(B) II & III are correct.





(C) I, II & IV are correct.





(D) III & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











19. The salient features of Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses as practised in India are





I. Incorporating National Guidelines on Malaria, Anaemia, Vitamin A supplementation and immunization schedule.





II. It is skill based.





III. Includes 0-7 days age in the program.





IV. Training of health personnel begins with sick young infants older than 2 months.





(A) I, III & IV are correct.





(B) I, II & III are correct.





(C) II, III & IV are correct.





(D) I, II & IV are correct.





Answers: (B)











20. Following are features of cross over studies:





I. Patients are randomly assigned to study and control groups.





II. The two groups are switched over immediately after half the duration of the study.





III. The study group receives the treatment under consideration and the control group receives alternative treatment or placebo.





IV. It cannot be used if the drug of interest cures the disease.





(A) I, II & III are correct.





(B) I, II & IV are correct.





(C) I, III & IV are correct.





(D) I & IV are correct.





Answers: (C)











Given below (21 to 30) consists of 2 paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.











21. Assertion (A): Health problems of the elderly are multifactorial.





Reason (R): Elderly contribute about 12% of the total population.





Answers: (C)











22. Assertion (A): Domestic violence affects the health of the women in more than one-way.





Reason (R): Women’s’ health is an intrinsic part of public health concern.





Answers: (B)











23. Assertion (A): Syndromic management of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) is a scientific and cost effective method of management of STDs.





Reason (R): Some of the agents causing sexually transmitted infections give rise to similar or overlapping clinical manifestations.





Answers: (A)











24. Assertion (A): BCG vaccine in infants is given on the left upper arm only.





Reason (R): In case no scar appears after BCG vaccination, revaccination is required.





Answers: (C)











25. Assertion (A): The appropriate test under RNTCP to confirm pulmonary tuberculosis is sputum examination for AFB.





Reason (R): Tubercle bacilli are excreted in the sputum by cases of pulmonary tuberculosis.





Answers: (A)











26. Assertion (A): Medical benefit under the ESI Act consists of “Full Medical Care” including hospitalization free of cost to the insured person.





Reason (R): The aim of occupational health is the promotion and maintenance of highest degree of physical, mental and social well-being of workers in all occupations.





Answers: (B)











27. Assertion (A): Primordial prevention and Primary prevention are one and the same.





Reason (R): Both are directed towards prevention of disease before its onset.





Answers: (D)











28. Assertion (A): Bar charts and Histograms are pictorial diagrams of frequency distribution.





Reason (R): The frequency in both bar charts and histograms is usually given on y axis.





Answers: (D)











29. Assertion (A): In probability sampling each item has a known probability of being in the sample.





Reason (R): Snowball sampling is a probability sampling.





Answers: (C)











30. Assertion (A): Blood pressure recording in adolescents can identify more at risk of developing hypertension in adult life.





Reason (R): Blood pressure levels of individuals if tracked from early childhood into adult life show that initial high levels tend to become higher and initial low levels remain lower with age.





Answers: (A)











31. Health Culture as explained by D. Banerji comprises of the following in their order of occurrence.





(A) Symptoms, Worry, Awareness, Action Taking.





(B) Worry, Awareness, Action Taking, Symptoms.





(C) Symptoms, Action Taking, Awareness, Worry.





(D) Action Taking, Symptoms, Worry, Awareness.





Answers: (A)











32. Arrange the following states in descending order of Infant Mortality Rates.





(A) Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal.





(B) Bihar, West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Goa.





(C) West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Goa.





(D) Goa, Himachal Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar.





Answers: (Wrong question)











33. Identify the correct sequence of food items in ascending order of Iron content.





(A) Almonds, Dates, Raisins, Groundnuts.





(B) Dates, Raisins, Groundnuts, Almonds.





(C) Raisins, Groundnuts, Almonds, Dates.





(D) Groundnuts, Almonds, Dates, Raisins.





Answers: (D)











34. Identify the correct order in which the following phenomenon occur after BCG vaccination?





(A) Papule, shallow ulcer, wheel, scar.





(B) Papule, wheel, shallow ulcer, scar.





(C) Wheel, papule, shallow ulcer, scar.





(D) Wheel, papule, scar, shallow ulcer.





Answers: (C)











35. Identify the correct sequence of stages in a sexual cycle of ‘Malaria Parasite’ ______





(A) Trophozoites, Schizonts, Merozoites, Sporozoites





(B) Sporozoites, Merozoites, Trophozoites, Schizonts.





(C) Merozoites, Trophozoites, Sporozoites, Schizonts.





(D) Sporozoites, Trophozoites, Merozoites, Schizonts.





Answers: (Wrong question)











36. Identify the correct sequence of following events in chronological order as they occurred in the history of Public Health.





(A) State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, Sanitory reforms by John Simon.





(B) Sanitory reforms by John Simon, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd.





(C) Epidemiology of Cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, Sanitory reforms by John Simon, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank.





(D) Sanitory reforms by John Simon, Epidemiology of cholera by John Snow, Spread of typhoid fever by drinking water by William Budd, State responsibility of ‘Health’ by Johana Peter Frank.





Answers: (A)











37. Identify the correct sequence of stages of demographic cycle.





(A) High stationary, Low stationary, early expanding, late expanding.





(B) Low stationary, high stationary, early expanding, late expanding.





(C) Low stationary, early expanding, late expanding, High stationary.





(D) High stationary, early expanding, Late expanding, Low stationary.





Answers: (D)











38. Arrange in correct ascending order the fibre content of some common Indian Foods.





(A) Bajara, Sweet Potato, Bengal gram, Banana.





(B) Banana, Bajara, Bengal gram, Sweet Potato.





(C) Bajara, Bengal gram, Sweet Potato, Banana.





(D) Banana, Sweet Potato, Bengal gram, Bajara.





Answers: (D)











39. Identify the correct sequence of mile stones in relation to maternal and child health in chronological order.





(A) Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women, Concern over high maternal mortality, Integration of sexual and reproductive health.





(B) Concern over high maternal mortality, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women.





(C) Declaration of rights of children, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Elimination of discrimination against women, Concern over high maternal mortality.





(D) Declaration of rights of children, Elimination of discrimination against women, Integration of sexual and reproductive health, Concern over high maternal mortality.





Answers: (A)











40. Identify the correct sequence of stages in modern sewage treatment plant.





(A) Sludge digestion, screening of sewage, sedimentation of sewage, composting with town refuse.





(B) Screening of sewage, sedimentation of sewage, sludge digestion, composting with town refuse.





(C) Screening of sewage, composting with town refuse, sludge digestion, sedimentation of sewage.





(D) Sedimentation of sewage, sludge digestion, screening of sewage, composting with town refuse.





Answers: (B)











Questions 41-50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.











41. List – I                              List - II





(Type of Study)                      (Feature)





(a) Case-Control Study           (i) Odd’s Ratio





(b) Ecological Study               (ii) Population Level





(c) Cohort Study                     (iii) Incidence





(d) Cross-sectional Study       (iv) Prevalence





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





Answers: (C)











42. List – I                                                                  List - II





(Type of data)                                                                         (Test of Significance)





(a) Quantitative data sample size less than 30            (i) χ2 test





(b) Qualitative data sample size more than 30            (ii) Standard error of difference between two proportions





(c) Quantitative data sample size more than 30          (iii) ‘t’-test





(d) Qualitative data sample size less than 30              (iv) Standard error of difference between two means





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)





(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





Answers: (A)











43. List – I                              List - II





(Types of Cancer)                   (Risk factor)





(a) Oral Cancer                        (i) Helicobacter Pylori





(b) Cervical Cancer                 (ii) Human Papillema Virus (HPV)





(c) Breast Cancer                    (iii) Tobacco





(d) Stomach Cancer                (iv) Positive Family History





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)





(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





Answers: (D)











44. List – I                              List - II





(Deficiency disease)                (Vitamins)





(a) Rickets                               (i) Vitamin C





(b) Scurvy                               (ii) Vitamin D





(c) Beri Beri                            (iii) Vitamin B1





(d) Megaloblastic Anaemia     (iv) Vitamin B12





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





Answers: (B)











45. List – I                                          List - II





(Providing Centres)                             (Normative Population)





(a) Community Health Centre            (i) 1,000





(b) Primary Health Centre                   (ii) 1,00,000





(c) Rural Sub Centre                           (iii) 5,000





(d) Anganwadi Centre                        (iv) 30,000





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)





Answers: (D)











46. List – I                              List - II





(Demographic Indicator)        (Process measured)





(a) TFR                                    (i) Population increase





(b) CBR                                  (ii) Average fertility





(c) NRR                                  (iii) Crude fertility





(d) CWR                                 (iv) Replacement level fertility





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)





Answers: (B)











47. List – I                                          List - II





(Diseases)                                            (Vectors)





(a) Epidemic Typhus                           (i) Tick





(b) Scrub Typhus                                 (ii) Mite





(c) Rocky Mountain spotted fever      (iii) Flea





(d) Murine Typhus                              (iv) Louse





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)





(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





Answers: (B)











48. List – I                                                      List - II





(Programmes/ Schemes)                                  (Benefits)





(a) Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram           (i) Cash assistance for delivery in government health centres.





(b) Janani Suraksha Yojana                             (ii) Free delivery in all public health institutions.





(c) Vandematram scheme                               (iii) Training health personnel in basic new born care and resuscitation





(d) Navajaat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram      (iv) Voluntary services by obstetrics and gynaecology experts for safe motherhood.





Codes:





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)





(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)





Answers: (C)











49. List – I                  List - II





(Disease)                     (Endemic Region)





(a) Goitre                     (i) Bihar





(b) Malaria                   (ii) Eastern Uttar Pradesh





(c) Chikangunia           (iii) Assam Valley





(d) Kala Azar              (iv) Delhi





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)





(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answers: (Wrong question)











50. List – I                  List - II





(Food Stuff)                (Glycemic Index)





(a) Honey                    (i) 87





(b) Rice                       (ii) 48





(c) Sweet Potato         (iii) 33





(d) Milk                       (iv) 72





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)





Answers: (D)


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