TNPSC Master: Public Administration Paper

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5/14/2019

UGC-NET Solved Paper - III Public Administration (Previous Questions)

TNPSC Master 5/14/2019 0

UGC-NET Solved Paper - III Public Administration

(Previous Original Questions)

Sl.No	Previous Question Papers with Answer	Link
1	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2012 June	Click Here
2	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2012 December	Click Here
3	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2013 June	Click Here
4	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2013 September	Click Here
5	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2013 December	Click Here
6	Public Administration Solved Paper III 2017	Click Here

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10/22/2017

UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Public Administration { 2013 September }

TNPSC Master 10/22/2017 0

1. Which of the following statements about Delivery Monitoring Unit in PMO is correct?

(A) It deals with the appointments to different posts in Central Government.

(B) It reviews Budget provisions.

(D) It reviews and select programmes including MNREGA, NRHM, JNNURM, SSA, etc.

Answer: (D)

2. “Every person holding a civil post in British India holds it during the pleasure of His Majesty and may not be dismissed from the service by an authority lower in rank than the authority which appointed him.” It was provided for the first time by which of the following Acts?

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Indian Council Act, 1892

(D) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (C)

3. Which one of the following is not correct about the comparison between Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretary?

(i) Both are administrative heads of respective Governments.

(ii) Both are chief regulators and co-ordinators of their respective administration.

(iii) Both supervise the decisions and policies of respective Governments.

(iv) Both have Ministerial or Departmental responsibilities.

Select the correct answer from the given codes:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) Only (ii)

(D) Only (iv)

Answer: (D)

4. Constitution of a high level panel comprising CAG, CVC and the Cabinet Secretary to ensure clean and accountable Government was suggested by

(A) Paul H. Appleby

(B) A.D. Gorwala

(D) Sixth Central Pay Commission

Answer: (C)

5. Which Article of the Constitution authorises Parliament to enact legislation on any subject in the State List?

(A) Article 200

(B) Article 247

(D) Article 250

Answer: (C)

6. Which of the following recommendation was not made by Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to appointment of Chief Secretary in a State?

(A) Chief Secretary shall be appointed on the recommendation of a Collegium.

(B) The Collegium shall consist of nominee of the Chief Minister.

(D) The Government shall consult with the Governor.

Answer: (D)

7. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)

(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour

(b) Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Surface and National Highways

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (C)

8. Arrange the following Committees on Civil Service Reforms in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(i) Hota Committee

(ii) Kothari Committee

(iii) Yogendra Kumar Alagh Committee

(iv) Sathish Chandra Committee

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Answer: (C)

9. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions was created in which of the following years?

(A) 1970

(B) 1973

(D) 1985

Answer: (D)

10. Which one of the following is not the softwares developed for the improvement and simplification of the Accounting System of Central Government offices:

(A) Government Accounting Information System (GAINS)

(B) Controller’s Account (CONTACT)

(D) Integrated Multimodule Processor for Voucher Entries (IMPROVE)

Answer: (C)

11. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

(A) Technical Guide for Accounting and Financial reporting by urban local bodies – Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

(B) Bangalore Agenda Task Force – Civic Organization

(D) JNNURM – Provision of job guarantee for the poor

Answer: (D)

12. Which of the following statements about the Task Force on Accounting and Budget Formats for ULBs (2002) is not correct?

(A) It was appointed by the CAG of India.

(B) It devised model budget formats along with accounting formats.

(D) It was appointed by the 11th Finance Commission.

Answer: (D)

13. “In view of the emergence of District as the key unit of field administration, there is no need to have an intermediate level of administration between State headquarters and the District.” This recommendation was made by

(A) Hanumanthaiah Committee

(B) Veerappa Moiley Committee

(D) K. Santhanam Committee

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following statements about the UPSC is not correct?

(A) The composition of the UPSC is determined by the President of India.

(B) Half of the members of the UPSC should be from those who have held office for at least 10 years under the Government.

(C) UPSC can also serve the needs of a State on the request of the Governor and with the consent of the President of India.

(D) The member of the UPSC can resign by addressing the resignation letter to the Chairman of the UPSC.

Answer: (D)

15. Which of the following is not the magisterial powers of a District Collector?

(A) Power to issue arms licences.

(B) Power to seek help of the military in grave situation.

(D) Maintenance of Law and Order.

Answer: (C)

16. Assertion (A): Ideally, the question sequence should conform to the respondents’ way of thinking.

Reason (R): The questions of personal character need to be avoided as opening questions.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

17. Who stated that “We cannot take a single step forward in an inquiry unless we begin with a suggested explanation or solution of the difficulty which originated it”?

(A) Lundberg

(B) Werkmeister

(D) Cohen and Hegel

Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following principles were enumerated by R.A. Fisher as the principles of experimental research design?

(i) Principle of Local Control

(ii) Principle of Matching

(iii) Principle of Randomization

(iv) Principle of Replication

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (D)

19. The statement “Knowledge is Foresight and Foresight is power” relates to

(A) Pure research

(B) Applied research

(D) Empirical research

Answer: (C)

20. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Institutions) List – II (Ministries)

(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) (i) Ministry of Labour

(b)Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (ii) Ministry of Women and Child Development

(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (iv) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (D)

21. Which of the following Commission / Committee had recommended that there should be All India Services in the area of Education, Health, Judiciary and Engineering?

(A) M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations (2010)

(B) Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988)

(D) The Committee on Civil Service Reforms (2004)

Answer: (A)

22. Assertion (A): The fundamental ethos of the employee-employer relationship is utilitarian and contractual.

Reason (R): Both employees and employers are tied into mutual exchange relations.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

23. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in India was passed in which of the following years?

(A) 2003

(B) 2006

(D) 2011

Answer: (A)

24. “Authority stems from the task being performed and from the situation” who among the following suggested this concept of authority?

(A) Herbert A. Simon

(B) Mary Parker Follett

(D) Max Weber

Answer: (B)

25. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Institutions) List – II (Year of Establishment)

(a) National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention (i) 2008

(b) Performance Management Division (ii) 2004

(d) Council on Climate Change (iv) 1997

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (A)

26. Assertion (A): The Central Social Welfare Board acts as a change maker with a humanitarian approach.

Reason (R): It facilitates networking of committed social workers for the empowerment of women and children.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

27. ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) or education for all’ is an outcome of which of the following Constitution Amendment in India?

(A) 42nd Amendment

(B) 44th Amendment

(D) 86th Amendment

Answer: (D)

28. The midterm appraisal of NHRM in 2009 observed that

(A) there has been decline in health indicators.

(B) there has been a significant improvements in health indicators.

(D) the appraisal was not conducted.

Answer: (B)

29. Which one of the following is not an indicator of low level of social welfare?

(A) High rate of crime

(B) Unemployment

(D) Higher life expectancy

Answer: (D)

30. Primary Health Care Approach based on equity, access and social justice is a vital philosophy of social development and it represents:

(A) Area Development Approach

(B) Consumer Rights Approach

(D) The Social Reform Approach

Answer: (C)

31. Social Development is an approach to

(i) increase per capita income

(ii) enhance the quality of life

(iii) respond to the problems of distorted development

(iv) deal with poverty related problem through a combination of economic and social measures

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

32. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of disinvestment?

(A) Increasing Government involvement in essential services.

(B) Improving public finances.

(D) Expanding share of ownership.

Answer: (A)

33. The performance of Central Public Sector Enterprises of Maharatna Status is reviewed by

(i) Inter-Ministerial Committee

(ii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises

(iii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Industry Ministry

(iv) Apex Committee headed by Cabinet Secretary

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (C)

34. Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Purskar is awarded under

(A) Panchayat Empowerment Incentive Scheme

(B) Panchayat Empowerment Accountability Scheme

(D) Gram Sabha Accountability and Empowerment Scheme

Answer: (C)

35. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the President’s power to entrust any matter, under the executive jurisdiction of Union Government, to a State with its consent?

(A) Article 248

(B) Article 256

(D) Article 258

Answer: (D)

36. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Integrated Action Plan (IAP) for tribal and backward districts of India?

(A) IAP was launched in 2010.

(B) It has been introduced in 82 tribal and backward districts in India.

(D) The District Collector and Chairman Zila Parishad have been made responsible to chalk out IAP proposals.

Answer: (D)

37. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Programme) List – II (Launched in the year)

(a) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY) (i) 2004

(b) Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA) (ii) 2009

(d) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) (iv) 2011

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following institution is responsible for the recruitment of Civil Services in USA?

(A) Office of Personnel Management

(B) Federal Labour Relations Authority

(D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

Answer: (A)

39. Which of the following approach is developed by ‘Ong and Humphris’ for impact assessment of public policies?

(A) Cost-benefit Analysis

(B) Performance Measurement Approach

(D) Experimental Approach

Answer: (C)

40. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine:

(A) Financial resources of the State for placing State’s requirements before the Union Government.

(B) Development requirements of the State for formulating State Five Year Plan.

(D) Pattern of distribution of State’s tax revenue between the State Government and Local Bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of Grants-in-aid to Local Bodies.

Answer: (D)

41. Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has not made any impact on the lives of rural poor.

Reason (R): Social Audit could minimize the defects in the implementation of social development programmes.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

42. “Public administration is constrained by Constitution and relatively unconstrained by market forces and it is considered a public trust exercised on behalf of the sovereign.” Who of the following made this statement?

(A) Rosenbloom D.H.

(B) Wallace Sayre

(D) Peter M. Blau

Answer: (A)

43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Author) List – II (Book)

(a) Dwight Waldo (i) Frontiers of Development Administration

(b) Edward Weidner (ii) Development Administration in Asia

(d) James J. Heaphey (iv) Spatial Dimensions of Development Administration

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (A)

44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Principles) List – II (Explanation)

(a) Espirit de corps (i) Right man in the right place

(b) Equity (ii) One head one plan

(d) Order (iv) Need for teamwork and healthy interpersonal relationship

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (C)

45. Grading of duties, not according to different functions, but according to degree of authority and corresponding responsibility, is called

(A) Hierarchy

(B) Division of functions

(D) Span of control

4 Answer: (A)

6. Unity of Command is in contradiction with which of the following?

(A) Centralisation

(B) Delegation

(D) Adjudication

Answer: (C)

47. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Thinkers) List – II (Views)

(a) Woodrow Wilson (i) The life blood of administration is power.

(b) Luther Gulick (ii) The field of administration is a field of business.

(d) N.E. Loug (iv) Politico administrative system is unique and warrant unique treatment.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (B)

48. Which one of following is not the basis of New Public Service Theory?

(A) Theory of Democratic Citizenship

(B) Models of Community and Civil Society

(D) Public Choice Theory

Answer: (D)

49. Assertion (A): The New Public Management with its explicit ‘Market’ orientation and over reliance on the private sector has varied responses from the commonwealth countries.

Reason (R): It looks that neoclassical economics has captured the public sector all over the world.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

50. The term ‘NOISE’ is connected with which of the following?

(A) Decision-making

(B) Leadership

(D) Motivation

Answer: (C)

51. “The number of cross and group relationships increases in mathematical relation as the number of subordinates assigned to an executive increases.” Who among the following advocated this view?

(A) Katz and Kahn

(B) Wildasky

(D) Norbert Weiner

Answer: (C)

52. Who among the following has proved by his studies that the democratic style of leadership is the most effective in management?

(A) Fred E. Fiedler

(B) Kurt Lewin

(D) Chris Argyris

Answer: (C)

53. The best known theory of group supervision, called the ‘linking pin’ concept is formulated by

(A) Frederick Herzberg

(B) Abraham Maslow

(D) Douglas McGregor

Answer: (C)

54. Anti-bureaucratic approach was most dominant in the writings of

(A) Christopher Hood

(B) Ferrell Heady

(D) Dwight Waldo

Answer: (C)

55. Who of the following glorified Herbert Simon as “The one man in the world who comes closest to the ideal of Aristotle or a Renaissance Man”?

(A) Woodrow Wilson

(B) Richard Cuert

(D) Luther Gulick

Answer: (B)

56. Which one of the following has been a common theme in all the three Minnowbrook Conferences held so far?

(A) Public interest orientation

(B) Relevance

(D) Global approach to public governance

Answer: (B)

57. Assertion (A): Leadership is judged by results not by attributes.

Reason (R): The productivity of work is not the responsibility of the worker, but of the manager.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

58. Arrange following experiments of Elton Mayo in chronological sequence:

(i) The Great Illumination

(ii) Social Organization

(iii) First Enquiry

(iv) Human Attitudes and Sentiments

(v) Absenteeism in the Industries

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(B) (v), (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)

(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) and (v)

Answer: (C)

59. Which one of the following is not correct about Chester I. Barnard?

(A) He developed the philosophical ground work for management.

(B) He was only concerned with human-relations school.

(D) He was called spiritual father of social system school.

Answer: (B)

60. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Thinkers) List – II (Concepts)

(a) Peter F. Drucker (i) The Scanlon Plan

(b) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler (ii) Theory of Departmentalization

(d) Luther Gulick (iv) New Public Management

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (B)

61. Woodrow Wilson laid emphasis on which of the following?

(i) Separation of Politics and Administration.

(ii) Improving the effectiveness of Public Service through management and by training of civil servants.

(iii) Comparative analysis of political and private organizations.

(iv) Divide work nearly equally between managers and workers.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

62. Which one of following is not a feature of administrative system of developing countries?

(A) Colonial legacy

(B) Operational autonomy

(D) Lack of technical competence

Answer: (B)

63. Which one of following French Prime Ministers said that “the administration is as represented by the grands corps”?

(A) Edith Cresson

(B) Jacques Chirac

(D) Michael Debre

Answer: (D)

64. Which of the following is not one of the department of US Federal Government?

(A) Agriculture

(B) Commerce

(D) Health and Human Services

Answer: (C)

65. Match items in List – I with items in List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Civil Service) List – II (Characteristic)

(a) Conseil d’Etat (i) Corps for bridges and roads

(b) Inspection des Finances (ii) Technical corps

(d) Corps des Ponts et Chaussées (iv) One of the first five grands corps

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (D)

66. Assertion (A): The ethos of Private Sector Management is becoming important to Public Sector Management in the post Liberalization era.

Reason (R): Public Sector is a drain on the Public Exchequer.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

67. The study which compares whole administrative system of two countries in their proper ecological context is called as

(A) Micro study

(B) Macro study

(D) Area study

Answer: (B)

68. Donald C. Stone states that, “the process involved in moving from an objective to be accomplished to the actual creation of organisation, service-system, new practices or relationships which evidence that change has actually taken place” is termed as

(A) Administrative development

(B) Capacity building

(D) Institution building

Answer: (D)

69. Who defined under development as a condition characterised by an ongoing process of retrogression?

(A) Alfred Sauvy

(B) Mao Zedong

(D) Walter Rodney

Answer: (C)

70. The bureaucracy tended to be more powerful in developing countries than in the developed ones.” Who among the following have supported this view?

(i) F.W. Riggs

(ii) Edward Weidner

(iii) Ferrell Heady

(iv) S.N. Eisenstadt

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (A)

71. Which of the following is the correct elaboration of V.A. Pai Panandikar’s formula ‘CROPP’?

(A) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Public and Personal

(B) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Policies and Personnel

(D) Coordination, Resources, Office, Personnel and Policies

Answer: (C)

72. Assertion (A): Policy maker is bound to consider variety of factors while taking policy decision.

Reason (R): Policy makers are well versed with environmental factors of policy agenda.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

73. Assertion (A): The bureaucracy plays an important role in policy formulation.

Reason (R): The formulation of policy requires the advice of persons who are impartial or neutral.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

74. Which of the following statements about municipal accounting reforms is not correct?

(A) They are the foundations for integrity and maturity of Government.

(B) They can serve as engines of good governance.

(C) Acceptable accounting practices need to reflect both the financial transactions and financial performance of the ULBs.

(D) It helps the local bodies to have greater technical accountability.

Answer: (D)

75. ‘Networked Government’ is the idea of

(A) Honey Report

(B) 1st Minnowbrook Conference 1968

(D) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference 2008

Answer: (D)

Tags # Public Administration Paper - III Continue Reading

UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Public Administration { 2013 June }

TNPSC Master 10/22/2017 0

1. Which among following is concerned with the definition of Public Administration as socially embedded process of collective relationship, dialogue and action to promote human flourishing for all?

(A) New Public Administration

(B) Third Minnowbrook Conference

(D) New Public Service Theory

Answer: (B)

2. The scope of Public Administration consists of the study of only three factors namely men, materials and methods. This view is expressed by

(A) P. McQueen

(B) Mooney and Reiley

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

3. Which of the following is not a matter of difference between public and private administration?

(A) Public Welfare and Public Satisfaction

(B) Public Scrutiny of actions and decisions

(D) POSDCORB activities

Answer: (D)

4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Books) (Authors)

a. Public Administration in the Time of Turbulence i. Lord Hewart

b. Toward a new public administration: The Minnowbrook perspective ii. Frank J. Goodnow

c. New Despotism iii. Frank Marini

d. Politics and Administration iv. Dwight Waldo

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) iii iv ii i

(D) ii iv i iii

Answer: (A)

5. An informal organization is:

(i) Comparatively stable

(ii) Satisfies social needs of its members.

(iii) Helps members in achievingtheir goals.

(iv) Preserves the cultural values of its members.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Answer: (D)

6. Assertion (A): Red-tape has been defined as punctilious exactitude in the observance of regulation.

Reason (R): ‘Red tape’ is perhaps the best insurance the public has to receive equal treatment at the hand of government.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

7. Assertion (A): There is no ideal number of persons a supervisor can supervise.

Reason (R): Span of control varies on the basis of factors like function, time, space and delegation of authority.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

8. Woodrow Wilson was a:

(i) President of U.S.A.

(ii) Governor of New Jersey

(iii) Recipient of Nobel Prize

(iv) President of Princeton University

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

(A) (i)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following factors influenced the emergence of the theory and practice of Human Relations?

(i) Class antagonisms

(ii) Reaction to Taylorism

(iii) Economic Depression

(iv) Backward material and cultural aspirations of workers.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

10. Assertion (A): Classical writers were concerned with improving the organizational structure as a means of increasing efficiency.

Reason (R): They laid emphasis on the importance of principles for the design of a logical structure of organization.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

11. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Writers) (Books)

a. James G. March and Herbert Simon i. The Principles of Organization

b. Chester Bernard ii. The Human Organization

c. James D. Mooney and Allan C. Reiley iii. Organisations

d. Rensis Likert iv. Organisation and Management

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) iii iv i ii

(D) iv ii i iii

Answer: (B)

12. Which one of the following is not an Independent Regulatory Commission in India?

(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority

(B) National Labour Relations Commission

(D) Securities and Exchange Board

Answer: (B)

13. Which one among the following books of M.P. Follett was edited by Metcalf and Urwick after the death of M.P. Follett?

(A) Creative Experience

(B) New State

(D) The Speaker of the House of Representative

Answer: (C)

14. Frederick Herzberg has identified certain determinants of job satisfaction in his two factors theory. Which of the following according to him are not job satisfiers?

(i) Salary

(ii) Achievement

(iii) Working conditions

(iv) Recognition

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) & (ii)

(B) (ii) & (iii)

(D) (iii) & (iv)

Answer: (C)

15. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Concept) (Thinkers)

a. Decision Tree i. Cohen, March and Olson

b. Linking Pin Model ii. Chris Argyris

c. Garbage Can Model iii. Duncan

d. Sensitivity Training iv. Rensis Likert

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iv iii ii

(B) iii iv ii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer: (D)

16. Rensis Likert has suggested which of the following model for removal of hurdles in traditional hierarchies?

(A) Management System I

(B) The Linking Pin Model

(D) Science based management

Answer: (B)

17. Who among following has given the concept of ‘A New Comparative Public Administration’?

(A) Keith M. Henderson

(B) Ira Sharkansky

(D) Robert P. Biller

Answer: (A)

18. Who said these words about Comparative Public Administration extended meaning of comparison “is the generalized or global framework of thinking about problems”?

(A) John Montgomery

(B) Jack C. Plano

(D) Talcott Parsons

Answer: (C)

19. Robert T. Golembiewski mentions three themes of comparative public administration as:

(i) Significance of focal concerns

(ii) Magnitude of resulting effort

(iii) Motivation for the approach

(iv) Stress on values

Select the correct answer by using code given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (A)

20. Which among the following is not a feature of Industrial model as developed by Fred W. Riggs?

(A) Pre-dominance of ascriptive particularistic and diffuse patterns

(B) High degree of social mobility

(D) Well-developed occupational systems

Answer: (A)

21. The salient characteristics of bazaar canteen economy as described by Riggs is/are

(i) Price Indeterminacy

(ii) Agglomeration of values

(iii) Intrusive access to the elites

(iv) Pariah entrepreneurship

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

22. The merit system for recruitment based on competitive examination was introduced first in

(A) Great Britain

(B) United States America

(D) India

Answer: (C)

23. Arrange in descending order the following institutions of Local Government of France:

(i) Canton

(ii) Department

(iii) Commune

(iv) Arrondissement

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)

(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)

Answer: (D)

24. Which one of the following is top tier of local government in U.K.?

(A) Metropolitan District

(B) Metropolitan County

(D) Shire

Answer: (B)

25. The Hatch Act, 1939 in U.S.A. dealt with

(A) Right to Strike

(B) Political activities of Civil Servants

(D) Machinery for Negotiation

Answer: (B)

26. Ferrel Heady identifies major features of national bureaucracy in the developing society. These are

(i) The basic pattern of administration is Imitative.

(ii) Widespread discrepancy between Form and Reality.

(iii) Bureaucracy accepts directions from other legitimate branches of government.

(iv) The bureaucracies are deficient in skilled Manpower.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

27. “The bureaucratic structure and its orientation to a development role are not necessarily incompatible.” This statement in the Indian context was made by

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) J.N. Khosla

(D) V.A. PaiPanandikar

Answer: (D)

28. Which one of the following is not correct about the development administration?

(A) Suitable institutions to accomplish the developmental goals are to be established.

(B) It is essential to build up administrative capacity and capability.

(D) Communication is only a desirable component of the development administration.

Answer: (D)

29. Assertion (A): In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.

Reason (R): In the constitution of India the provision is made that the council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

30. Decision Making in development administration is

(i) Flexible

(ii) Centralised

(iii) Rigid

(iv) Innovative

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) & (ii)

(B) (ii) & (iii)

(D) (i) & (iv)

Answer: (D)

31. The President of India makes some appointments by warrant under his hand and seal. These are

(i) Judges of Supreme Court

(ii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(iii) Attorney-General of India

(iv) Governors of the states

Select correct answer by using codes given below:

(A) (i) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

32. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Reports) (Year)

a. Montague- Chemsford Report on constitutional reforms in India i. 1955

b. State Reorganization Commission ii. 1918

c. Taxation Enquiry Commission iii. 1954

d. Statutory (Simon) Commission iv. 1927

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iv iii ii i

(D) ii i iii iv

Answer: (D)

33. “Of all the policy making organs in the Government of India, the secretariat stands on an exceptionally high pedestal.” This statement is attributed to

(A) K. Subramanyam

(B) Chand Joshi

(D) S.R. Maheshwari

Answer: (D)

34. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I List – II

(Parliament’s power to make laws) (Articles)

a. For implementing any international treaty or agreement i. Article 250

b. In the matters enumerated in the State list during Emergency ii. Article 246

c. For imposing a tax not mentioned in concurrent list or state list iii. Article 253

d. The matters enumerated in Union List iv. Article 248

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(D) iv i ii iii

Answer: (C)

35. Match the List – I with List – II andselect the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Reports of the second administrative reforms commission) (Title of the Report)

a. Crisis Management i. Friction to Fusion

b. Local Government ii. From despair to hope

c. Capacity building for conflict resolution iii. In inspiring journey into future

d. Social capital iv. A Shared Destiny

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) ii iii i iv

(D) iv i ii iii

Answer: (B)

36. The importance of personnel administration has increased in recent times due to followings:

(i) Recognition of Human aspect of organization

(ii) Long-range needs of manpower

(iii) Large size of the modern organization

(iv) High wage bills necessitating optimum use of manpower.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

37. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Provisions of Constitution) (Contents)

a. Article 316(1) i. Qualification for member of Union Public Service Commission

b. Article 316(2) ii. Ground for removal of member of Public Service Commission

c. Article 317(3) iii. Further employment under Government of India

d. Article 319 iv. Resignation of members of Public Service Commission

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) i iii iv ii

(D) i iii ii iv

Answer: (C)

38. On the recommendations made by Chief Ministers’ Conference in 1961, the Parliament resolved to create which of the following three new All India Services?

(i) Indian Service of Engineers(Irrigation, Power, Buildings &Roads)

(ii) Indian Medical and Health Service

(iii) Indian Audit and Accounts Service

(iv) Indian Forest Service

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

39. Which of following statements about ‘Right to Strike’ by Civil Servants in India is correct?

(A) It is prohibited by transaction of business rules.

(B) Right to strike is mentioned in Civil Service Conduct Rules.

(D) Strike by Civil Servants constitutes breach of discipline.

Answer: (D)

40. Assertion (A): What has been happening in India, in recent times, is Sanskritization of corruption.

Reason (R): People began to adopt corruption not for its inherent utility, but as a means of belonging to the elite class.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

41. Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals:

(i) Parliament is empowered to make laws for the adjudication or trial by administrative tribunals.

(ii) The disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of services of persons appointed to public services are adjudicated by the said tribunals.

(iii) The jurisdiction and authority of such tribunals is specified by the law passed by the Parliament.

(iv) The administrative tribunals can also be set up for adjudicating disputes relating to foreign exchange and export and import matters.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

42. Consider the following functions of Standing Committees of Parliament in India:

(i) To consider demand for grants.

(ii) To make a report on demand for grants to the Houses of Parliament.

(iii) To consider annual reports of Ministries and make reports there on.

(iv) To consider national basic short term policy documents presented to the houses.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

43. ‘If the Finance Minister is to be held responsible for filling the reservoir and maintaining certain depth of water in it, he must be in a position to regulate the outflow’. This statement is made by

(A) Hoover Commission

(B) Haldane Committee

(D) Tenth Finance Commission

Answer: (B)

44. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.

(ii) Net proceeds of taxes, duties and other revenues are credited to the consolidated fund of India.

(iii) A law passed by the Parliament has established contingency fund of India to enable advances to be made by the President for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure.

(iv) Prior authorization under Article 115 or Article 116 is required to make advances out of contingency fund of India.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (A)

45. Scientific research intends to :

(i) Generalize Knowledge

(ii) Extend Knowledge

(iii) Correct Knowledge

(iv) Comprehend Knowledge

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

46. “A set of questions which are asked and filled in by an interviewer in a face-to-face situation with another person” is termed as

(A) Questionnaire

(B) Schedule

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

47. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the interview as a research tool?

(A) Interview is a highly flexible tool allowing a more permissible atmosphere.

(B) Interview has greater opportunity to appraise the accuracy and validity of replies.

(D) Interviewer may be able to interject guesses and impressions into respondent’s responses.

Answer: (D)

48. Who of the following described the case study method of research as the social microscope?

(A) Herbert Spencer

(B) E. Burgress

(D) William Healy

Answer: (B)

49. What is another name of Measure of Central Tendency?

(A) Index Number

(B) Average

(D) Median

Answer: (B)

50. The Lakhina (Ahmednagar) experiment was related with

(A) District Administration

(B) Rural Development

(D) Revenue Administration

Answer: (A)

51. Which one of the following statements regarding research report is not correct?

(A) The communication of findings is an important part of researcher’s responsibilities.

(B) The researcher is not under any obligation to consider the audience for whom the given report is intended.

(D) A discussion of methods/ procedures and an elaborate presentation of facts and findings are compulsory.

Answer: (B)

52. Lord Rippon’s Resolution was called as the Magna Carta of Local Government. The resolution includes:

(i) Establishment of a network of local self-governing institutions.

(ii) Financial decentralization

(iii) Adoption of election as a means of constituting local bodies.

(iv) Reduction of the number of officials to one third of total membership.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

53. Which one of following is the meaning of ‘Panchayat’ according to the Constitution of India?

(A) Institution of Local Self Government.

(B) Institution of Self Government for Rural areas.

(D) Institution of Rural Local Administration.

Answer: (B)

54. Assertion (A): The powers and functions of Gram Sabha are prescribed in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R): Gram Sabha is a forum where civic engagement and formation of social capital is possible.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

55. Which of the following committees on Panchayati Raj recommended Zila Parishad as the lynchpin of the PRI structure?

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) Ashok Mehta Committee

(D) Paswan Committee

Answer: (B)

56. Assertion (A): Zila Parishad is vested with planning and developmental functions.

Reason (R): The technicalmanpower is already availableat the district level.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

57. Which one of the following recommended mandatory devolution of taxation powers to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?

(A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

(B) Ashok Mehta Committee

(D) M.L. Dantwala Working Group

Answer: (B)

58. Assertion (A): A comprehensive exercise needs to be taken up regarding broadening and deepening of the revenue base of local governments.

Reason (R): The State Government by delegation expands the tax domain of Panchayats.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

59. Which of the following is the form of integrated governing structure at the District level as recommended by the second ARC?

(A) District Assembly

(B) District Council

(D) District Board

Answer: (B)

60. Assertion (A): There is need to adopt a common categorization of urban local bodies across the country to improve clarity in their definition.

Reason (R): There should be three-tier of administration of urban local governments, except in the case of Town Panchayat.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

61. National Policy for persons with disabilities was framed in the year

(A) 2003

(B) 2004

(D) 2006

Answer: (D)

62. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of social justice laid down in our Five Year Plans?

(A) Inclusive growth

(B) Bringing balanced regional growth

(D) Promoting economic growth

Answer: (D)

63. Who recommended for productive planning with constitutional status in India?

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) K.C. Neogi

(D) Manmohan Singh

Answer: (A)

64. Put the following in an ascending chronological order and select the correct answer by using codes given below:

i. Constitution of National Commission to Review the working of the constitution.

ii. Enactment of SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.

iii. The employment of Manual Scavengers and construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act.

iv. Amendment of Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Codes:

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer: (D)

65. The 12th Five Year Plan document approved by Cabinet aimed at

(i) Rejuvenating India’s economy

(ii) Infusing higher government funding in key social sector such as health, education and sanitation.

(iii) Targeted the average economic growth at 8.2%

(iv) Technological advancement

Select the correct answer by using codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

66. Which one of the following has proposed setting up of a Financial Redressal Agency to deal with consumer grievances in a time bound manner?

(A) Economic Commission

(B) 11th Five Year Plan Document

(D) The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

Answer: (D)

67. Which of the following suggested that there is no need for continuation of the District Rural Development Agency?

(A) Report of the Committee to review the existing administrative arrangement for rural development.

(B) II ARC report on Local Governance

(D) Evaluation of Panchayati Raj Institutions, 2000 UNNATTI NGO

Answer: (B)

68. Members of Parliament and state Legislatures should not become members of Local Bodies. This recommendation was made by

(A) Ashok Mehta Committee

(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(D) Veerappan Moiley Committee

Answer: (D)

69. Assertion (A): The Community Development Programme was launched to secure total development of the material and human resources of rural areas.

Reason (R): It was administered in phases at five levels National, State, District, Block and Village level.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

70. Approaches to rural development in India include:

(i) Area Development Approach

(ii) Target Group Approach

(iii) Social Security Approach

(iv) Self-Employment Approach

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

71. Which of the following statement/statements regarding policy analysis is/are correct?

(i) It gained considerable popularity since 1960’s.

(ii) It was first adopted in the United States.

(iii) It aims at improving the quality of a policy.

(iv) It involves a wide range of studies and research activities.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (ii) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

72. Project implementation may involve many steps. Arrange those in sequential order by using codes given below:

(i) Initiating the project.

(ii) Clarifying authority, responsibility and relationships.

(iii) Directing and Controlling

(iv) Establishing Control System

(v) Obtaining resources

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)

(D) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)

Answer: (D)

73. Which one among the following is not a model of Policy formulation and implementation?

(A) Institutional

(B) Garbage Can

(D) Organized Anarchy

Answer: (C)

74. Who among the following are not associated with the group model of policy formulation and implementation?

(i) Arthur F. Bentley

(ii) Wayne Parsons

(iii) C. Wright Mills

(iv) Earl Latham

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

75. Which of the following statements about the Rural Electrification Policy of India, 2006 is not correct?

(A) There has to be a provision of electricity to all Households by 2009.

(B) A census village is to be taken as village for the purpose of rural electrification.

(C) The State Governments were supposed to set up District Committees to review and coordinate the extension of electrification at the district level.

(D) Central government shall endeavour to supply electricity to all areas including villages and hamlets.

Answer: (D)

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