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UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Public Administration { 2013 September }



1. Which of the following statements about Delivery Monitoring Unit in PMO is correct?


(A) It deals with the appointments to different posts in Central Government.


(B) It reviews Budget provisions.


(C) It examines security measures.


(D) It reviews and select programmes including MNREGA, NRHM, JNNURM, SSA, etc.


Answer: (D)





2. “Every person holding a civil post in British India holds it during the pleasure of His Majesty and may not be dismissed from the service by an authority lower in rank than the authority which appointed him.” It was provided for the first time by which of the following Acts?


(A) Government of India Act, 1858


(B) Indian Council Act, 1892


(C) Government of India Act, 1919


(D) Government of India Act, 1935


Answer: (C)





3. Which one of the following is not correct about the comparison between Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretary?


(i) Both are administrative heads of respective Governments.


(ii) Both are chief regulators and co-ordinators of their respective administration.


(iii) Both supervise the decisions and policies of respective Governments.


(iv) Both have Ministerial or Departmental responsibilities.


Select the correct answer from the given codes:


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)


(B) Only (ii)


(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(D) Only (iv)


Answer: (D)





4. Constitution of a high level panel comprising CAG, CVC and the Cabinet Secretary to ensure clean and accountable Government was suggested by


(A) Paul H. Appleby


(B) A.D. Gorwala


(C) Fifth Central Pay Commission


(D) Sixth Central Pay Commission


Answer: (C)





5. Which Article of the Constitution authorises Parliament to enact legislation on any subject in the State List?


(A) Article 200


(B) Article 247


(C) Article 249


(D) Article 250


Answer: (C)





6. Which of the following recommendation was not made by Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to appointment of Chief Secretary in a State?


(A) Chief Secretary shall be appointed on the recommendation of a Collegium.


(B) The Collegium shall consist of nominee of the Chief Minister.


(C) The Leader of Opposition and incumbent Chief Secretary shall be consulted.


(D) The Government shall consult with the Governor.


Answer: (D)





7. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Institutions)                                                                                       List – II (Ministries)


(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)                                                    (i) Ministry of Labour


(b) Employees’ Provident Fund Organization                                                (ii) Ministry of Human Resource Development


(c) Border Road Organization                                                                                    (iii) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions


(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)         (iv) Ministry of Surface and National Highways


Codes:


      (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)


(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)


Answer: (C)





8. Arrange the following Committees on Civil Service Reforms in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(i) Hota Committee


(ii) Kothari Committee


(iii) Yogendra Kumar Alagh Committee


(iv) Sathish Chandra Committee


Codes:


(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)


(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)


(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)


(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)


Answer: (C)





9. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions was created in which of the following years?


(A) 1970


(B) 1973


(C) 1977


(D) 1985


Answer: (D)





10. Which one of the following is not the softwares developed for the improvement and simplification of the Accounting System of Central Government offices:


(A) Government Accounting Information System (GAINS)


(B) Controller’s Account (CONTACT)


(C) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance (IGAF)


(D) Integrated Multimodule Processor for Voucher Entries (IMPROVE)


Answer: (C)





11. Which of the following is not matched correctly?


(A) Technical Guide for Accounting and Financial reporting by urban local bodies – Institute of Chartered Accountants of India


(B) Bangalore Agenda Task Force                                                                                         – Civic Organization


(C) Introduction of accrual based accounting in 7 cities of Gujarat                                      – World Bank Financial Assistance


(D) JNNURM                                                                                                                         – Provision of job guarantee for the poor


Answer: (D)





12. Which of the following statements about the Task Force on Accounting and Budget Formats for ULBs (2002) is not correct?


(A) It was appointed by the CAG of India.


(B) It devised model budget formats along with accounting formats.


(C) It made recommendations on introduction of cost accounting and MIS in ULBs.


(D) It was appointed by the 11th Finance Commission.


Answer: (D)





13. “In view of the emergence of District as the key unit of field administration, there is no need to have an intermediate level of administration between State headquarters and the District.” This recommendation was made by


(A) Hanumanthaiah Committee


(B) Veerappa Moiley Committee


(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee


(D) K. Santhanam Committee


Answer: (B)





14. Which of the following statements about the UPSC is not correct?


(A) The composition of the UPSC is determined by the President of India.


(B) Half of the members of the UPSC should be from those who have held office for at least 10 years under the Government.


(C) UPSC can also serve the needs of a State on the request of the Governor and with the consent of the President of India.


(D) The member of the UPSC can resign by addressing the resignation letter to the Chairman of the UPSC.


Answer: (D)





15. Which of the following is not the magisterial powers of a District Collector?


(A) Power to issue arms licences.


(B) Power to seek help of the military in grave situation.


(C) Transfer of the Deputy Superintendent of Police.


(D) Maintenance of Law and Order.


Answer: (C)





16. Assertion (A): Ideally, the question sequence should conform to the respondents’ way of thinking.


Reason (R): The questions of personal character need to be avoided as opening questions.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





17. Who stated that “We cannot take a single step forward in an inquiry unless we begin with a suggested explanation or solution of the difficulty which originated it”?


(A) Lundberg


(B) Werkmeister


(C) Robert and Merton


(D) Cohen and Hegel


Answer: (D)





18. Which of the following principles were enumerated by R.A. Fisher as the principles of experimental research design?


(i) Principle of Local Control


(ii) Principle of Matching


(iii) Principle of Randomization


(iv) Principle of Replication


Select the correct answer by using codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii), (iii)


(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)


(C) (i), (ii), (iv)


(D) (i), (iii), (iv)


Answer: (D)





19. The statement “Knowledge is Foresight and Foresight is power” relates to


(A) Pure research


(B) Applied research


(C) An interplay between ‘Pure’ and ‘Applied’ research


(D) Empirical research


Answer: (C)





20. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Institutions)                                                                                       List – II (Ministries)


(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)                                                    (i) Ministry of Labour


(b)Employees’ Provident Fund Organization                                                 (ii) Ministry of Women and Child Development


(c) Central Social Welfare Board                                                                    (iii) Ministry of Human Resource Development


(d) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)         (iv) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions


Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)


Answer: (D)





21. Which of the following Commission / Committee had recommended that there should be All India Services in the area of Education, Health, Judiciary and Engineering?


(A) M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations (2010)


(B) Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988)


(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission Report – Refurbishing of Personnel Administration (2008)


(D) The Committee on Civil Service Reforms (2004)


Answer: (A)





22. Assertion (A): The fundamental ethos of the employee-employer relationship is utilitarian and contractual.


Reason (R): Both employees and employers are tied into mutual exchange relations.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (A)





23. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act in India was passed in which of the following years?


(A) 2003


(B) 2006


(C) 2009


(D) 2011


Answer: (A)





24. “Authority stems from the task being performed and from the situation” who among the following suggested this concept of authority?


(A) Herbert A. Simon


(B) Mary Parker Follett


(C) Chester I Barnard


(D) Max Weber


Answer: (B)





25. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Institutions)                                                                           List – II (Year of Establishment)


(a) National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention               (i) 2008


(b) Performance Management Division                                              (ii) 2004


(c) National Advisory Council                                                            (iii) 2009


(d) Council on Climate Change                                                          (iv) 1997


Codes:


         (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)


(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)


Answer: (A)





26. Assertion (A): The Central Social Welfare Board acts as a change maker with a humanitarian approach.


Reason (R): It facilitates networking of committed social workers for the empowerment of women and children.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (A)





27. ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) or education for all’ is an outcome of which of the following Constitution Amendment in India?


(A) 42nd Amendment


(B) 44th Amendment


(C) 59th Amendment


(D) 86th Amendment


Answer: (D)





28. The midterm appraisal of NHRM in 2009 observed that


(A) there has been decline in health indicators.


(B) there has been a significant improvements in health indicators.


(C) no change is noticeable in it.


(D) the appraisal was not conducted.


Answer: (B)





29. Which one of the following is not an indicator of low level of social welfare?


(A) High rate of crime


(B) Unemployment


(C) Poverty


(D) Higher life expectancy


Answer: (D)





30. Primary Health Care Approach based on equity, access and social justice is a vital philosophy of social development and it represents:


(A) Area Development Approach


(B) Consumer Rights Approach


(C) Minimum Needs Programme Approach


(D) The Social Reform Approach


Answer: (C)





31. Social Development is an approach to


(i) increase per capita income


(ii) enhance the quality of life


(iii) respond to the problems of distorted development


(iv) deal with poverty related problem through a combination of economic and social measures


Select the correct answer by using codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)


(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)


(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


Answer: (B)





32. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of disinvestment?


(A) Increasing Government involvement in essential services.


(B) Improving public finances.


(C) Funding expansion plans.


(D) Expanding share of ownership.


Answer: (A)





33. The performance of Central Public Sector Enterprises of Maharatna Status is reviewed by


(i) Inter-Ministerial Committee


(ii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises


(iii) Apex Committee headed by Secretary, Industry Ministry


(iv) Apex Committee headed by Cabinet Secretary


Select the correct answer by using codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii)


(B) (i), (iii)


(C) (i), (iv)


(D) (i), (ii), (iii)


Answer: (C)





34. Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Purskar is awarded under


(A) Panchayat Empowerment Incentive Scheme


(B) Panchayat Empowerment Accountability Scheme


(C) Panchayat Empowerment and Accountability Incentive Scheme


(D) Gram Sabha Accountability and Empowerment Scheme


Answer: (C)





35. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is related to the President’s power to entrust any matter, under the executive jurisdiction of Union Government, to a State with its consent?


(A) Article 248


(B) Article 256


(C) Article 257


(D) Article 258


Answer: (D)





36. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Integrated Action Plan (IAP) for tribal and backward districts of India?


(A) IAP was launched in 2010.


(B) It has been introduced in 82 tribal and backward districts in India.


(C) The objective of IAP is to create public infrastructure and services in the selected districts.


(D) The District Collector and Chairman Zila Parishad have been made responsible to chalk out IAP proposals.


Answer: (D)





37. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Programme)                                                                           List – II (Launched in the year)


(a) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY)                            (i) 2004


(b) Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA)                (ii) 2009


(c) Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP)                        (iii) 1999


(d) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)                                (iv) 2011


Codes:


        (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)


(C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)


(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


Answer: (B)





38. Which of the following institution is responsible for the recruitment of Civil Services in USA?


(A) Office of Personnel Management


(B) Federal Labour Relations Authority


(C) Merit System Protection Board


(D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission


Answer: (A)





39. Which of the following approach is developed by ‘Ong and Humphris’ for impact assessment of public policies?


(A) Cost-benefit Analysis


(B) Performance Measurement Approach


(C) Rapid Appraisal Methodology


(D) Experimental Approach


Answer: (C)





40. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine:


(A) Financial resources of the State for placing State’s requirements before the Union Government.


(B) Development requirements of the State for formulating State Five Year Plan.


(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the State Government.


(D) Pattern of distribution of State’s tax revenue between the State Government and Local Bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of Grants-in-aid to Local Bodies.


Answer: (D)





41. Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has not made any impact on the lives of rural poor.


Reason (R): Social Audit could minimize the defects in the implementation of social development programmes.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (D)





42. “Public administration is constrained by Constitution and relatively unconstrained by market forces and it is considered a public trust exercised on behalf of the sovereign.” Who of the following made this statement?


(A) Rosenbloom D.H.


(B) Wallace Sayre


(C) Lipsky M.


(D) Peter M. Blau


Answer: (A)





43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Author)                     List – II (Book)


(a) Dwight Waldo                   (i) Frontiers of Development Administration


(b) Edward Weidner               (ii) Development Administration in Asia


(c) F.W. Riggs                         (iii) Temporal Dimensions of Development Administration


(d) James J. Heaphey              (iv) Spatial Dimensions of Development Administration


Codes:


        (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)


(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)


(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


Answer: (A)





44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Principles)                                                     List – II (Explanation)


(a) Espirit de corps                                                      (i) Right man in the right place


(b) Equity                                                                    (ii) One head one plan


(c) Unity of direction                                                  (iii) Justice tempered with kindness


(d) Order                                                                     (iv) Need for teamwork and healthy interpersonal relationship


Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)


(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)


Answer: (C)





45. Grading of duties, not according to different functions, but according to degree of authority and corresponding responsibility, is called


(A) Hierarchy


(B) Division of functions


(C) Decentralization


(D) Span of control


4 Answer: (A)





6. Unity of Command is in contradiction with which of the following?


(A) Centralisation


(B) Delegation


(C) Functional foremanship


(D) Adjudication


Answer: (C)





47. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Thinkers)                               List – II (Views)


(a) Woodrow Wilson                          (i) The life blood of administration is power.


(b) Luther Gulick                                (ii) The field of administration is a field of business.


(c) D. Waldo                                       (iii) Public administration research was grounded in Political Theory.


(d) N.E. Loug                                                 (iv) Politico administrative system is unique and warrant unique treatment.


Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)


(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)


(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)


(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


Answer: (B)





48. Which one of following is not the basis of New Public Service Theory?


(A) Theory of Democratic Citizenship


(B) Models of Community and Civil Society


(C) Organizational Humanism and Discourse Theory


(D) Public Choice Theory


Answer: (D)





49. Assertion (A): The New Public Management with its explicit ‘Market’ orientation and over reliance on the private sector has varied responses from the commonwealth countries.


Reason (R): It looks that neoclassical economics has captured the public sector all over the world.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





50. The term ‘NOISE’ is connected with which of the following?


(A) Decision-making


(B) Leadership


(C) Communication System


(D) Motivation


Answer: (C)





51. “The number of cross and group relationships increases in mathematical relation as the number of subordinates assigned to an executive increases.” Who among the following advocated this view?


(A) Katz and Kahn


(B) Wildasky


(C) Graicunas


(D) Norbert Weiner


Answer: (C)





52. Who among the following has proved by his studies that the democratic style of leadership is the most effective in management?


(A) Fred E. Fiedler


(B) Kurt Lewin


(C) Rensis Likert


(D) Chris Argyris


Answer: (C)





53. The best known theory of group supervision, called the ‘linking pin’ concept is formulated by


(A) Frederick Herzberg


(B) Abraham Maslow


(C) Rensis Likert


(D) Douglas McGregor


Answer: (C)





54. Anti-bureaucratic approach was most dominant in the writings of


(A) Christopher Hood


(B) Ferrell Heady


(C) Vincent Ostrom


(D) Dwight Waldo


Answer: (C)





55. Who of the following glorified Herbert Simon as “The one man in the world who comes closest to the ideal of Aristotle or a Renaissance Man”?


(A) Woodrow Wilson


(B) Richard Cuert


(C) L.D. White


(D) Luther Gulick


Answer: (B)





56. Which one of the following has been a common theme in all the three Minnowbrook Conferences held so far?


(A) Public interest orientation


(B) Relevance


(C) Effective decision-making


(D) Global approach to public governance


Answer: (B)





57. Assertion (A): Leadership is judged by results not by attributes.


Reason (R): The productivity of work is not the responsibility of the worker, but of the manager.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (A)





58. Arrange following experiments of Elton Mayo in chronological sequence:


(i) The Great Illumination


(ii) Social Organization


(iii) First Enquiry


(iv) Human Attitudes and Sentiments


(v) Absenteeism in the Industries


Codes:


(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)


(B) (v), (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)


(C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) and (v)


(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) and (v)


Answer: (C)





59. Which one of the following is not correct about Chester I. Barnard?


(A) He developed the philosophical ground work for management.


(B) He was only concerned with human-relations school.


(C) He went deep into sociology, psychology and abstract reasoning.


(D) He was called spiritual father of social system school.


Answer: (B)





60. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Thinkers)                                                       List – II (Concepts)


(a) Peter F. Drucker                                                    (i) The Scanlon Plan


(b) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler                          (ii) Theory of Departmentalization


(c) McGregor                                                              (iii) Generic Management


(d) Luther Gulick                                                        (iv) New Public Management


Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)


(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)


(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


Answer: (B)





61. Woodrow Wilson laid emphasis on which of the following?


(i) Separation of Politics and Administration.


(ii) Improving the effectiveness of Public Service through management and by training of civil servants.


(iii) Comparative analysis of political and private organizations.


(iv) Divide work nearly equally between managers and workers.


Select the correct answer by using codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (i) and (ii)


(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)


(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)


(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)


Answer: (B)





62. Which one of following is not a feature of administrative system of developing countries?


(A) Colonial legacy


(B) Operational autonomy


(C) Formalism


(D) Lack of technical competence


Answer: (B)





63. Which one of following French Prime Ministers said that “the administration is as represented by the grands corps”?


(A) Edith Cresson


(B) Jacques Chirac


(C) Michael Rocard


(D) Michael Debre


Answer: (D)





64. Which of the following is not one of the department of US Federal Government?


(A) Agriculture


(B) Commerce


(C) Industry


(D) Health and Human Services


Answer: (C)





65. Match items in List – I with items in List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I (Civil Service)                                                List – II (Characteristic)


(a) Conseil d’Etat                                                        (i) Corps for bridges and roads


(b) Inspection des Finances                                        (ii) Technical corps


(c) Corps des Mines                                                    (iii) Specializes in administrative law


(d) Corps des Ponts et Chaussées                               (iv) One of the first five grands corps


Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)


(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)


Answer: (D)





66. Assertion (A): The ethos of Private Sector Management is becoming important to Public Sector Management in the post Liberalization era.


Reason (R): Public Sector is a drain on the Public Exchequer.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (C)





67. The study which compares whole administrative system of two countries in their proper ecological context is called as


(A) Micro study


(B) Macro study


(C) Middle range study


(D) Area study


Answer: (B)





68. Donald C. Stone states that, “the process involved in moving from an objective to be accomplished to the actual creation of organisation, service-system, new practices or relationships which evidence that change has actually taken place” is termed as


(A) Administrative development


(B) Capacity building


(C) Nation building


(D) Institution building


Answer: (D)





69. Who defined under development as a condition characterised by an ongoing process of retrogression?


(A) Alfred Sauvy


(B) Mao Zedong


(C) Andre Gunder Frank


(D) Walter Rodney


Answer: (C)





70. The bureaucracy tended to be more powerful in developing countries than in the developed ones.” Who among the following have supported this view?


(i) F.W. Riggs


(ii) Edward Weidner


(iii) Ferrell Heady


(iv) S.N. Eisenstadt


Select the correct answer by using codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (i), (ii), (iii)


(B) (i), (iii), (iv)


(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)


(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)


Answer: (A)





71. Which of the following is the correct elaboration of V.A. Pai Panandikar’s formula ‘CROPP’?


(A) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Public and Personal


(B) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Policies and Personnel


(C) Coordination, Resources, Organisation, Personnel and Procedures


(D) Coordination, Resources, Office, Personnel and Policies


Answer: (C)





72. Assertion (A): Policy maker is bound to consider variety of factors while taking policy decision.


Reason (R): Policy makers are well versed with environmental factors of policy agenda.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (C)





73. Assertion (A): The bureaucracy plays an important role in policy formulation.


Reason (R): The formulation of policy requires the advice of persons who are impartial or neutral.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





74. Which of the following statements about municipal accounting reforms is not correct?


(A) They are the foundations for integrity and maturity of Government.


(B) They can serve as engines of good governance.


(C) Acceptable accounting practices need to reflect both the financial transactions and financial performance of the ULBs.


(D) It helps the local bodies to have greater technical accountability.


Answer: (D)





75. ‘Networked Government’ is the idea of


(A) Honey Report


(B) 1st Minnowbrook Conference 1968


(C) 2nd Minnowbrook Conference 1988


(D) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference 2008


Answer: (D)


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