11/21/2016

CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set - 6

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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set - 6


51. Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival. 


Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.


Choose the correct code :


 (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


 (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


 (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.


 (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.


Answer: 2





52. World Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)


 (1) 25% (2) 50%


 (3) 75% (4) 80% 


Answer: 2





53. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?


 (a) Contributing to national development.


 (b) Fostering global competencies among the students.


 (c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.


 (d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.


 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :


Codes :


 (1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)


 (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: 2





54. The best way for providing value education is through


 (1) discussions on scriptural texts (2) lectures / discourses on values


 (3) seminars / symposia on values (4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values


Answer: 4





55. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by


 (1) The Supreme Court of India


 (2) The High Court


 (3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both


 (4) The President of India


Answer: 1





56. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?


 (a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.


 (b) Parliament is Supreme.


 (c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.


 (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.


 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :


 (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)


 (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only


Answer: 4





57. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?


 (a) To respect the National Flag.


 (b) To protect and improve the natural environment.


 (c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.


 (d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.


 Select the correct answer from the codes given :


 Codes :


 (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)


 (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: 1





58. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog ?


 (a) It is a constitutional body.


 (b) It is a statutory body.


 (c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.


 (d) It is a think-tank.


 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :


 (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)


 (3) (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)


Answer: 3





59. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below,


given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and


indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code :


Set – I (Levels of Cognitive Interchange)  Set – II (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)


a. Memory level                           i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.


b. Understanding level                      ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.


c. Reflective level                             iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information.


                                                          iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.


 Codes :


     a   b  c


 (1) ii  iv i


 (2) iii iv ii


 (3) ii  i  iv


 (4) i   ii iii


Answer: 3





60. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :


 (i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.


 (ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.


 (iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.


 (iv) Student’s language background.


 (v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.


 (vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.


Codes :


 (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)


 (3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) 


Answer: 2





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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set - 5

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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set - 5


41. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware” refers to


 (1) Information Technology (IT)


 (2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)


 (3) Information and Data Technology (IDT)


 (4) Artificial Intelligence (AI)


Answer: 1





42. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by


 (1) 110011 (2) 110010


 (3) 110001 (4) 110100


Answer: 1





43. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as


 (1) Burning (2) Zipping


 (3) Digitizing (4) Ripping


Answer: 1





44. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a


 (1) Worm (2) Virus


 (3) Threat (4) Spam 


Answer: 4





45. _________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.


 (1) RIM (Read Initial Memory)


 (2) RAM (Random Access Memory)


 (3) ROM (Read Only Memory)


 (4) Cache Memory


Answer: 3





46. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for


 (1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange


 (2) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information


 (3) American Standard Code for Information Integrity


 (4) American Standard Code for Isolated Information


Answer: 1





47. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.


 (1) Particulate matter (2) Oxides of nitrogen


 (3) Surface ozone (4) Carbon monoxide


Answer: 3





48. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?


 (1) Untreated sewage


 (2) Agriculture run-off


 (3) Unregulated small scale industries


 (4) Religious practices


Answer: 1





49. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by


 (1) 2022 (2) 2030


 (3) 2040 (4) 2050


Answer: 2





50. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is


 (1) 50 MW (2) 25 MW


 (3) 15 MW (4) 10 MW


Answer: 4



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CBSE UGC NET 2016 July Result Declared

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CBSE UGC NET 2016 July Result Declared: CBSE UGC NET Aspirants can check their result July 2016 Exams



How to check the result? 


  • Enter Your Roll Number and Date of Birth and Submit and get ther Result all the best


Click Here and Get the Result CBSE UGC NET - 2016 July 







CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set -4

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31. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it :  To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.  


 (1) Astronomical (2) Anthropological


 (3) Deductive (4) Analogical


Answer: 4





32. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :


 (1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.


 (2) It can provide clear method of notation.


 (3) It can be either valid or invalid.


 (4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.


Answer: 3





33. Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises :


 (1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.


 (2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.


 (3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.


 (4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.


Answer: 2





34. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.


Premises : (i) All religious persons are emotional. (ii) Ram is a religious person. 


Conclusions : (a) Ram is emotional.


 (b) All emotional persons are religious.


 (c) Ram is not a non-religious person.


 (d) Some religious persons are not emotional.


Codes :


 (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)


 (2) (a) only


 (3) (a) and (c) only


 (4) (b) and (c) only 


Answer: 3





The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 35-37 based on the data contained in the table : 




35. If the total expenditure of the two companies was ` 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company


A in that year ?


 (1) ` 9.2 lakh


 (2) ` 8.1 lakh


 (3) ` 7.2 lakh


 (4) ` 6.0 lakh


Answer: 2





36. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ?


 (1) 35%


 (2) 42%


 (3) 38%


 (4) 40%


Answer: 3





37. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A ?


 (1) 2012


 (2) 2013


 (3) 2014


 (4) 2015 


Answer: 2





The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to


a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions


that follow : (Question 38-40) to the nearest whole percentage : 







38. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ?


 (1) 31% (2) 23%


 (3) 25% (4) 14%


Answer: 3





39. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their


favourite style of music ?


 (1) 6% (2) 8%


 (3) 14% (4) 12%


Answer: 4





40. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical


music ?


 (1) 64% (2) 60%


 (3) 75% (4) 50%


Answer: 3



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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set -3

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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set -3


21. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.


 (1) Use of peer command


 (2) Making aggressive statements


 (3) Adoption of well-established posture


 (4) Being authoritarian


Answer: 3





22. Every communicator has to experience


 (1) Manipulated emotions


 (2) Anticipatory excitement


 (3) The issue of homophiles


 (4) Status dislocation 


Answer: 2





23. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be


 (1) YKCPGAYLQ


 (2) BNFSJDBMR


 (3) QLYAGPCKY


 (4) YQKLCYPAG


Answer: 1





24. In the series


 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........


 The next term will be


 (1) 63 (2) 73


 (3) 83 (4) 93


Answer: 3





25. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost ` 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost ` 173. The fare for city B from city A will be `


 (1) 25 (2) 27


 (3) 30 (4) 33


Answer: 4





26. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?


 (1) 20 m (2) 15 m


 (3) 10 m (4) 5 m


Answer: 4





27. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as


 (1) Grand daughter (2) Daughter


 (3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister


Answer: 1





28. In the series:  AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST, the missing term is


 (1) JKLMN (2) JMKNL


 (3) NMLKJ (4) NMKLJ


Answer: 3





29. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :


 Propositions :


 (a) All women are equal to men


 (b) Some women are equal to men


 (c) Some women are not equal to men


 (d) No women are equal to men


Codes :


 (1) (a) and (b)


 (2) (a) and (d)


 (3) (c) and (d)


 (4) (a) and (c) 


Answer: 4





30. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?


 Propositions :


 (1) Some thieves are poor.


 (2) Some thieves are not poor.


 (3) No thief is poor.


 (4) No poor person is a thief.


Answer: 2



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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set -2

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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Solved Paper - 1 Set -2


Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 11 to 16 :


In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors. In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime. In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a resource with at least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive resource in the semiconductor industry.


Based on the passage answer the following questions :





11. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?


 (1) South Korea 


 (2) Japan


 (3) Mexico 


 (4) Malaysia


Answer: 2





12. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors ?


 (1) Due to diminishing levels of skill.


 (2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.


 (3) Because of new competitors.


 (4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.


Answer: 3





13. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?


 (1) Through regional capital flows.


 (2) Through regional interactions among business players.


 (3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.


 (4) By effective use of various instrumentalities.


Answer: 4





14. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?


 (1) Access to capital 


 (2) Common office buildings


 (3) Superior knowledge 


 (4) Common metals


Answer: 1





15. The passage also mentions about the trend of


 (1) Global financial flow


 (2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry


 (3) Regionalisation of capitalists


 (4) Organizational incompatibility


Answer: 1





16. What does the author lay stress on in the passage ?


 (1) International commerce 


 (2) Labour-Intensive industries


 (3) Capital resource management 


 (4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage


Answer: 4





17. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?


 (1) Horizontal communication


 (2) Vertical communication


 (3) Corporate communication


 (4) Cross communication


Answer: 1





18. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.


 (1) Avoidance of proximity


 (2) Voice modulation


 (3) Repetitive pause


 (4) Fixed posture


Answer: 2


                                                                                                                                                                                                                   


19. What are the barriers to effective communication ?


 (1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.


 (2) Dialogue, summary and self-review.


 (3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.


 (4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.


Answer: 1





20. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of


 (1) Proximity, utility, loneliness


 (2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance


 (3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception


 (4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance


Answer: 1





21. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.


 (1) Use of peer command


 (2) Making aggressive statements


 (3) Adoption of well-established posture


 (4) Being authoritarian


Answer: 3





22. Every communicator has to experience


 (1) Manipulated emotions


 (2) Anticipatory excitement


 (3) The issue of homophiles


 (4) Status dislocation 


Answer: 2




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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Paper - 1 Set -1

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CBSE UGC NET July 2016 Paper - 1 Set -1


1. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching :


 List of factors :


(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.


(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.


(c) Communication skill of the teacher.


(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.


(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.


 (f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.


Codes :


(1) (b), (c) and (d) 


(2) (c), (d) and (f)


(3) (b), (d) and (e) 


(4) (a), (c) and (f)


Answer: 4





2. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of


(1) attracting students’ attention in the class room.


(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.


(3) optimising learning outcomes of students.


(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks.


Answer: 3





3. Assertion (A) : The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.


Reason (R) : These abilities ensure job placements.


Choose the correct answer from the following code :


(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.


(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.


Answer: 2





4. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.


Choose the correct code :


         Set – I                                     Set – II


a. Formative evaluation                    i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects with regularity


b. Summative evaluation          ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks


c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation iii. Grading the final learning outcomes


d. Norm and criterion referenced tests     iv. Quizzes and discussions


    Codes :


     a   b   c  d


(1) iv iii i   ii


(2) i  ii  iii iv


(3) iii iv ii  i


(4) i iii iv   ii 


Answer: 1





5. A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study ?


(1) Historical method 


(2) Descriptive survey method


(3) Experimental method 


(4) Ex-post-facto method


Answer: 4





6. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?


(1) Developing a research design


(2) Formulating a research question


(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure


(4) Formulating a research hypothesis


Answer: 2





7. The format of thesis writing is the same as in _______?


(1) preparation of a research paper/article


(2) writing of seminar presentation


(3) a research dissertation


(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper


Answer: 3





8. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?


(1) Data collection with standardised research tools.


(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.


(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.


(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences.


Answer: 3





9. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ :


(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.


(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.


(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.


(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.


(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.


(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.


Codes :


(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 


(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi) 


(4) (i), (iii) and (v)


Answer: 3





10. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis ?


(1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.


(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted.


(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.


(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis. 


Answer: 2



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UGC CBSE NET Computer Science Paper - II MCQ Questions with Answers

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UGC CBSE NET Computer Science Paper - II MCQ Questions with Answers


1. E-mail addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the symbol ______


a. &   


b. @


c. %   


d. *


Answer: b





2. Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation is called ______


a. Multiprogramme    


b. Multifacet 


c. Multimedia        


d. Multiprocess


Answer: c





3. 'Micro Processing' is made for 


a. Computer           


b. Digital System


c. Calculator         


d. Electronic Goods


Answer: a





4. Which is the most popular media for multimedia packaging?


a. Floppy Disk


b. CD-ROM


c. Hard Disk


d. None of these above


Answer: b





5. Computer language used on Internet is ______


a. PASCAL


b. JAVA


c. BASIC


d. c++


Answer: b





6. Computer understands the ______ language


a. Word Processing


b. DTP


c. Spreadsheet


d. All of thes above


Answer: a





7. The pattern of printed lines on most products is called ______


a. prices                       


b. OCR


c. scanners                


d. barcodes


Answer: d





8. Blueprints are usually created using ______ software.


a. draw             


b. paint


c. CAD                        


d. None of these


Answer: c





9. A desktop Computer is also known as a ______


a. Note Book               


b. PC 


c. Laptop                     


d. Mainframe


Answer: b





10. Computer Virus is a ______


a. Hardware                


b. Bacteria


c. Software                 


d. None of these


Answer: c


Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Dated: 21.11.2016

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Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
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11/20/2016

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Dated: 20.11.2016

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Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
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11/19/2016

Dinamani TNPSC - General Knowledge Model Questions Dated: 19.11.2016

11/19/2016 0
Dinamani Newspaper Published important question of TNPSC (Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission) Exam. In these questions prepared by Sathya IAS Academy, Chennai. 

Dinamani News Paper - TNPSC Question and Answer: General Knowledge Multiple Choice Question with Answers.



Courtesy: Dinamani
நன்à®±ி: தினமணி நாளிதழ்

11/18/2016

TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 341-360

11/18/2016 0
TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 341-360
(341) The Head of the government under a Parliamentary government enjoys _______ 
(a) Real power (b) nominal power
(c) limited power (d) no power

(342) The classification of government as unitary and federal is on the basis of _______ 
(a) Centralization of power (b) division of power
(c) delegation of powers (d) separation of powers

(343) Majority provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by _______ 
(a) the Parliament (b) The President
(c) the State Legislature (d) the Parliament of the consent of states

(344) Community Development Program was launched on _______ 
(a) 2nd October 1951 (b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1953 (d) 2nd October 1954

(345) National Extension Service was launched on _______ 
(a) 2nd October 1953 (b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1951 (d) 2nd October 1950

(346) Political homogeneity is a feature of _______ 
(a) Presidential system (b) Parliamentary system
(c) Democratic system (d) Collegiate executive

(347) To organize village Panchayath as units of self government is an example of _______ 
(a) Liberal principle (b) Economic principle
(c) Gandhian principle (d) None of these

(348) The age to exercise franchise was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by _______ 
(a) 42nd amendment (b) 44th amendment
(c) 61st amendment (d) 72nd amendment

(349) The President of India can dissolve the House of People on the recommendation of the _______ 
(a) Vice President (b) Chief Justice
(c) Cabinet (d) Council of Ministers

(350) Motion suggesting that expenditure earmarked for particular ministry should be reduced is known as _______ 
(a) Adjournment motion (b) Cut motion
(c) Privilege motion (d) Call of attention motion

(351) A member of the Parliament formally loss his membership if he consecutively abstain himself from _______ sitting of the House
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 90

(352) In India a person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for a maximum period  _______ 
(a) 1 month (b) 6 month (c) 1 year (d) 2 years

(353) Who is the Head of the Government in India?
(a) The President (b) the Prime Minister
(c) the speaker (d) the Deputy Chairman of Rajya sabha

(354) The Governor of a state can nominate how many members to the Legislative Assembly?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5

(355) Which among the following type of authority is given to the President of India?
(a) Political (b) Defacto (c) Dejure (d) Popular

(356) The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the _______ 
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of States (d) House of the People

(357) The revenue estimate of a budget are prepared by _______ 
(a) Estimates Committee (b) Central Ministry of Finance
(c) Union Council of Ministers (d) Respective Ministers

(358) The committee which examine the ‘extravagance’ of the government _______ 
(a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public Undertaking Committee (d) Ad hoc Committee

(359) The budget is an instrument of control by _______ 
(a) the Government (b) the Executive
(c) the Legislature (d) the Judiciary

(360) Separate electorate for Muslims were introduced by the Act of _______ 
(a) 1919 (b) 1935 (c) 1909 (d) 1947

Answers Key
(341) (a) Real power
(342) (b) division of power
(343) (a) the Parliament
(344) (b) 2nd October 1952
(345) (a) 2nd October 1953
(346) (b) Parliamentary system
(347) (c) Gandhian principle
(348) (c) 61st amendment
(349) (d) Council of Ministers
(350) (b) Cut motion
(351) (c) 60
(352) (b) 6 month
(353) (b) the Prime Minister
(354) (c) 1
(355) (c) Dejure
(356) (d) House of the People
(357) (b) Central Ministry of Finance
(358) (b) Estimates Committee
(359) (c) the Legislature
School of Distance Education
(360) (a) 1919

TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 321-340

11/18/2016 0
TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 321-340
(321)The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in ______ 
(a) January 1947 (b) July 1947
(c) August 1947 (d) May 1947

(322) The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of ______ 
(a) 5 member (b) 6members (c) 7 members (d) 8 members

(323) The Constitution of India consists of ______ 
(a) 390 articles (b) 396 articles
(c) 395 articles (d) 394 articles

(324) The Constitution of India was adopted on ______ 
(a) 26th January 1950 (b) 26th January 1947
(c) 26th November 1949 (d) 26th June 1948

(325)Which among the following Acts introduced the principle of election for the first time?
(a) Indian Independence Act of 1947 (b) Indian Council Act 1909
(c) Government of India Act 1935 (d) Government of India Act 1919

(326)Directive Principles of state Policy are included in the Articles ______ 
(a) 15-24 (b) 25-32 (c) 36-51 (d) 52-60

(327) The procedure for amending the Constitution is in ______ 
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 360
(c) Article 367 (d) Article 371

(328)The Concurrent list in the Constitution of India was adopted from ______ 
(a) Switzerland (b) Australia
(c) Canada (d) Irish

(329) The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India was adopted from ______ 
(a) Irish (b) Canada (c) Germany (d) Australia

(330) The makers of the Constitution of India adopted the concept of Judicial Review from ______ 
(a)Russia (b) Germany (c) US (d) Australia

(331) The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under ______ 
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 352

(332) Fundamental Rights are included in articles ______ 
(a) 15-24 (b) 12-36 (c) 36-51 (d) 52-62

(333) Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955” in ______ 
(a) 1972 (b) 1977 (c) 1976 (d) 1955

(334) Right to Property was omitted from Part III of the Constitution by the ______ 
(a) 42nd amendment (b) 44th amendment
(c) 86th amendment (d) 62nd amendment

(335) The watchword of a Parliamentary government is ______ 
(a) Stability (b) checks and balances
(c) Political homogeneity (d) responsibility

(336) Who presides over the joint session of the Parliament?
(a) Speaker (b) Deputy Chairman
(c) President (d) Vice President

(337) The position of the Vice President of India resembles to the position of Vice President of
(a) France (b) USA
(c) Canada (d) Russia

(338) who prepares the agenda in meeting of the Council of Ministers?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Deputy Prime Minister (d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(339) The Chairman of Council of States is elected by ______ 
(a) Elected members of Council of States (b) All members of the Council of States
(c) Members of both Houses of Parliament (d) elected members of the Parliament

(340) which of the following is not an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) To ensure a welfare state (b) to ensure socio-economic justice
(c) To establish a religious state (d) to ensure the creation of village Panchayath

Answers Key
(321) (a) January 1947
(322) (c) 7 members
(323) (c) 395 articles
(324) (a) 26th January 1950
(325) (b) Indian Council Act 1909
(326) (c) 36-51
(327) (a) Article 368
(328) (b) Australia
(329) (a) Irish
(330) (c) US
(331) (d) Article 352
(332) (b) 12-36
(333) (c) 1976
(334) (b) 44th amendment
(335) (d) responsibility
(336) (c) President
(337) (b) USA
(338) (b) Prime Minister
(339) (c) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(340) (c) To establish a religious state

TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 301-320

11/18/2016 0
TNPSC GK Model Questions Indian Constitution / Polity 301-320
(301) Which article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states?
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 360
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 263

(302) The members of the Planning Commission have the status equal to that of _____
(a) Central cabinet ministers (b) state ministers
(c) Deputy Ministers (d) Members of Parliament

(303) which among the following is not created by the Constitution?
(a) Planning Commission (b) Finance Commission
(c) Election Commission (d) UPSC

(304) Chairman of the Planning Commission is the _____
(a) President (b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker

(305) The Constitution of India is parliamentary because
(a) There is an elected President (b) there is a bicameral legislature
(c) There is a Supreme Court (d) the executive is responsible to the Legislature

(306) India is a Republic in the sense that
(a) it has an elected Head of the state (b) it has an elected Head of the Government
(c) it has a bi-cameral legislature (d) it has sovereign power

(307) Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the _____
(a) Prime Minister (b) Council of Ministers
(c) President (d) Vice President

(308) Planning Commission was formed by Government of India by a resolution in _____
(a) 1950 (b) 1947
(c) 1944 (d) 1946

(309) Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) It is democratic (b) it is republic
(c) it is federal (d) it is Presidential

(310) The word “procedure established by law” in the constitution of India have been borrowed from
(a) UK (b) USA (c) French (d) Germany

(311) The President of the Constituent Assembly was _____
(a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (d) Dr BR Ambedkar

(312) ”India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?
(a) US (b) France (c) Swiss (d) Canada

(313) The list dividing powers between union and states are given in the _____ schedule
(a) IV (b) V (c) VI (d) VII

(314) The Indian Constitution is an _____
(a) Enacted one (b) evolved one
(c) unwritten one (d) None of these

(315) Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the Act of _____
(a) 1892 (b) 1919 (c) 1935 (d) 1909

(316) Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre by the Act of _____
(a) 1909 (b) 1919 (c) 1935 (d) 1947

(317) The Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad (b) B.R.Ambedkar _____
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishna swamy Iyer

(318) The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in _____
(a) June 1946 (b) July 1946
(c) August 1946 (d) September 1946

(319) The Montague Chelmsford Reforms is known as _____
(a) Government of India Act 1919 (b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Government of India Act 1909 (d) Government of India Act 1892

(320) Government of India Act 1909 is known as _____
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms (b) Minto Morley Reforms
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan (d) Cripps Mission Plan

Answer Key
(301) (d) Article 263
(302) (a) Central cabinet ministers
(303) (a) Planning Commission
(304) (c) Prime Minister
(305) (d) the executive is responsible to the Legislature
(306) (a) it has an elected Head of the state
(307) (c) President
(308) (a) 1950
(309) (d) it is Presidential
(310) (b) USA
(311) (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(312) (d) Canada
(313) (d) VII
(314) (a) Enacted one
(315) (b) 1919
(316) (c) 1935
(317) (c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(318) (b) July 1946
(319) (a) Government of India Act 1919
(320) (b) Minto Morley Reforms

CSIR UGC NET Application Status Released - 2016. Date of Exam:18.12.2016

11/18/2016 0
CSIR UGC NET Application Status Released - 2016. Date of Exam:18.12.2016


CSIR - Council of Scientific And Industrial Research


Humanr Resource Development Group,


CSIR Complex, Library Avenue, 


New Delhi - 110 012.





CSIR UGC Test JRF / Lectureship (NET) Exam Scheduled on 18.12.2016





CSIR UGC NET Application Status





CSIR UGC NET Aspirants who have applied for Joint CSIR UGC Test JRF / Lectureship (NET) scheduled on 18.12.2016 that list of candidates registered for the test shall be available on CSIR, HRDG website. 









Note: If any candidate who has applied by his/her name is not found registered, then he / she may contact the Examination unit between 18th to 24th November.2016.with following supported documents


1. Both Side photo copy of filled in hard copy of online application


2. Proof of Dispatch 





How to submit: Candidates may send these documents through Fax on the following numbers or email 


1. 01-25843305






For more details please refer Official Website: www.csirhrdg.res.in


TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2016 Free Conference

11/18/2016 0
TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2016  Free Conference: Vetri IAS Coaching Centre will conduct tomorrow (19.11.2016) One Day Free Conference for TNPSC Group 1 Exams. Vetri IAS Coaching Centre will conduct model exams in every sunday. Interested TNPSC Group 1 Aspirants / candidates should register their name and Contact in following numbers.

Vetri IAS Coaching Centre, Anna Nagar, Chennai.
Mobile No.: 9600124042 
Phone No.: 044-26265326

Courtesy: Dinamani e-News Paper
Thanks to: தினமணி நாளிதழ் 

Daily GK Update: Current Affairs in Tamil Medium. Date: 16.11.2016 to 18.11.2016

11/18/2016 0
Daily GK Update: Current Affairs in Tamil Medium. Date: 16.11.2016 to 18.11.2016
TNPSC Master publishes relevant fact based Current Affairs almost daily basis. In this current affairs helps you and useful for General Awareness part of TNPSC, UPSC, SSC IBPS Banking and other State Public Service Commission examination. TNPSC Master is a compilation of recent current events. In This section is updated almost daily events, Innovation, Achievement, Awards and New Appointments etc.



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