Showing posts with label Political Science Paper III. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Political Science Paper III. Show all posts

5/14/2019

UGC-NET Solved Paper - III Political Science (Previous Questions)

5/14/2019 0
UGC-NET Solved Paper - III Political Science (Previous Questions)




UGC-NET Solved Paper - II Political Science

(Previous Questions)














Sl.NoPrevious Question Papers with AnswerLink
1Political Science Solved Paper III 2012 JuneClick Here
2Political Science Solved Paper III 2012 DecemberClick Here
3Political Science Solved Paper III 2013 JuneClick Here
4Political Science Solved Paper III 2013 SeptemberClick Here
5Political Science Solved Paper III 2013 DecemberClick Here
6Political Science Solved Paper III 2017Click Here









UGC-NET Solved Paper I 2006 to 2017 Download



UGC-NET Paper III for All Subjects: Download




10/19/2017

UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Political Science { 2013 December }

10/19/2017 0
UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Political Science { 2013 December }


1. Which one of the following factors is not responsible for the decline of Political Theory?


(A) Positivism


(B) Historicism


(C) Moral Relativism


(D) Ideological Pluralism


Answer: (D)





2. Neo-liberalism does not believe in


(A) Deregulation


(B) Debureaucratisation


(C) Disinvestment


(D) Statisation


Answer: (D)





3. Who said, ‘Taxation equals forced labour’?


(A) John Rawls


(B) Hayek


(C) Nozick


(D) Berlin


Answer: (C)





4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                    List – II


(Authors)                                 (Books)


a. Richard Lowenthal             i. Red China Today


b. Benjamin L. Schwartz        ii. Mao’s Revolutionand the Chinese Political Culture


c. Edgar Snow                        iii. World Communism


d. Richard H. Solomon           iv. Communism and Chinese Ideology in Flux


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       iii        iv         i           ii


(B)       iv         iii         ii          i


(C)       ii          i           iii         iv


(D)       i           ii          iv         iii


Answer: (A)





5. Who defined an ideology as ‘a set of ideas by which men posit, explain and justify the ends and means of organized social action, irrespective of whether such action aims to preserve, amend, uproot or rebuild a given social order’?


(A) de Tracy


(B) Martin Seliger


(C) D. Mc Lellan


(D) J. Larrain


Answer: (B)


6. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):


Assertion (A): All Political Philosophers are political theorists.


Reason (R): All Political Theorists are not necessarily Political Philosophers.


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the right explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (A)





7. Who said that Labour power equals the brain, muscle, and nerve of the Labourer?


(A) Lenin


(B) M.N. Roy


(C) Marx


(D) Jayaprakash Narayan


Answer: (C)





8. The reappearance of Plato is found in the


(A) Utopia of Sir Thomas More


(B) City of the Sun of Campanella


(C) New Atlantis of Bacon


(D) All the above


Answer: (D)





9. Which one of the statements is not correct in respect of Aristotle?


(A) Men are by nature unequal.


(B) There is subordination of inferior to superior.


(C) Women are, by nature, subordinated to men.


(D) Slavery is justified because it does not secure the best conditions for the slave.


Answer: (D)





10. Who did help to humanize J.S. Mill’s revised version of Utilitarianism?


(A) James Mill


(B) Mrs. Harriet Taylor


(C) Priestley


(D) Hutcheson


Answer: (B)


11. For Hobbes, ‘Felicity’ means


(A) Pleasure


(B) A continued success in obtaining those things which a man from time to time desires.


(C) Empathy


(D) None of the above


Answer: (B)


12. ‘The “natural” man will be one in whom strong conscience and steadfast reason have successfully harmonized self-love and sympathy’. Who advocated this?


(A) Hobbes


(B) Rousseau


(C) Bentham


(D) Locke


Answer: (B)





13. Locke’s Essay Concerning Human Understanding was a refutation of


(A) Hobbes’ Leviathan


(B) Priestley’s Essay on Government


(C) Bentham’s Fragment on Government


(D) Sir Robert Filmer’s Patriarcha.


Answer: (D)





14. The Politics of Society must be based on two principles as (i) ‘Treat others as self’ and (ii) ‘help the other persons in need’. Whose saying is this?


(A) Rammohan Roy


(B) B.R. Ambedkar


(C) Aurobindo


(D) Savarkar


Answer: (C)





15. Identify the correct sequence of M.N.Roy’s activities/events in ascending order:


(i) Formed “The League of Radical Congressman’.


(ii) Founded “The Indian Renaissance Movement”.


(iii) Expelled from “Comintern”


(iv) Founded a weekly, “The Independent India”.


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)


(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)


(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)


(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)


Answer: (A)





16. Who among the following was elected as U.S. President for the fourth term?


(A) George Washington


(B) Franklin D. Roosevelt


(C) Theodore Roosevelt


(D) Andrew Jackson


Answer: (B)





17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes:


Assertion (A): Democratic values command wide spread acceptance within liberal democracies as an ideal, but at the same time citizens have become more critical of the working of the core institutions of representative democracy.


Reason (R): The declining faith in government represents a deflation of the political culture, reducing the capacity of the political system to achieve shared goals.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (R).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.


(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.


Answer: (B)





18. Which of the following countries has a simple constitution-amending procedure?


(A) U.S.A.


(B) U.K.


(C) India


(D) France


Answer: (B)





19. In reference to Presidential system which President of U.S.A. said, “For the folly of just one man may spell disaster for the whole nation.”?


(A) Jimmy Carter


(B) Barrack Obama


(C) George W. Bush


(D) Woodrow Wilson


Answer: (A)





20. Which one of the following statements about the U.S. President is not correct?


(A) No U.S. President has ever been impeached.


(B) Richard Nixon’s impeachment failed by one vote.


(C) The House of Representatives has the power to initiate impeachment proceedings.


(D) The case is tried by the Senate with the Chief Justice presiding.


Answer: (B)


21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                    List – II


(Model of Development)        (Features)


a. Bourgeoisie model              i. Urban Economic growth development of Legislature and Electoral process.


b. Autocratic model                ii. Suppress middleclass.


c. Technocratic model             iii. Low political participation and high foreign investment.


d. Populist model                    iv. Stresses high political participation as well as economic inequality.


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       i           ii          iii         iv


(B)       iv         iii         ii          i


(C)       iii         ii          i           iv


(D)       ii          iii         iv         i


Answer: (A)





22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                    List – II


(Authors)                                 (Books)


a. Robert Michaels                  i. Democracy and its critics


b. Samuel Huntington             ii. State Building: Governance and World order in the Twenty First Century


c. Robert Dahll                        iii. Political Parties


d. Francis Fukuyama               iv. The Third Wave: Democratization in the Late Twentieth Century.


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       i           iii         iv         ii


(B)       iii         iv         i           ii


(C)       iv         ii          iii         i


(D)       ii          i           iii         iv


Answer: (B)





23. Who among the following has adopted the ‘Political-conflict approach’ in the analysis of revolution?


(A) Thdeda Skocpol


(B) Alexis de Tocqueville


(C) Charles Tilly


(D) Emile Durkheim


Answer: (C)





24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes below:


List – I                                                                        List – II


(Books)                                                           (Authors)


a. The Politics of Modernization                     i. Amartya Sen


b. Development as Freedoms                          ii. Samuel P. Huntington


c. Political order in Changing Societies          iii. Celso Furtado


d. Development and Underdevelopment       iv. David E. Apter


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       i           ii          iii         iv


(B)       iv         i           ii          iii


(C)       ii          iii         iv         i


(D)       iv         i           iii         ii


Answer: (B)





25. Which of the following thinkers defined modernization in terms of three conditions:


(i) An innovative social system


(ii) Differentiated, flexible social structure


(iii) Social basis for skill and knowledge, in technologically advanced world.


(A) C.E. Black


(B) David E. Apter


(C) Samuel P. Huntington


(D) S.N. Eisenstadt


Answer: (B)





26. Which of the following statements are correct about the Swiss Political System?


1. The Centre in Switzerland is more powerful than that of the U.S.A.


2. Swiss Government has right to military intervention in case of secession.


3. The residuary powers belong to the units.


4. Swiss political system is unitary.


Codes:


(A) 1, 2, 4


(B) 2, 3, 4


(C) 1, 2, 3


(D) 1, 2, 3, 4


Answer: (C)





27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                        List – II


(Thinkers)                    (Concepts)


a. M. Focault               i. Will to power


b. Steven Lukes          ii. Bio power


c. Stewart Clegg         iii. Radical view of power


d. F. Nietzche                         iv. Circuits of power


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       iv         i           ii          iii


(B)       iii         ii          i           iv


(C)       i           iv         iii         ii


(D)       ii          iii         iv         i


Answer: (D)





28. Which one is not the attribute of one party system?


(A) Sectarian (Exclusive, regional, class, ideological) support.


(B) Closed, Authoritarian, Direct action, Repressive organization.


(C) Diffused, National integration, Community building, Mobilisation.


(D) Comprehensive, Clientele oriented, Pragmatic support.


Answer: (D)





29. Which of the following, according to Lucian Pye, are the crises of Political development?


1. Crisis of Identity


2. Crisis of Legitimacy


3. Crisis of Leadership


4. Crisis of Integrity


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) 1, 2


(B) 2, 3


(C) 3, 4


(D) 1, 4


Answer: (A)





30. Match List-I with List-II. Select correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                                                                    List – II


(Elites)                                                                                     (Functions)


a. Current Political Elites                                                        i. Goal attainment


b. Economic Military, Scientific, Diplomatic Elites               ii. Adaptation


c. Priest, Philosophers, Educators                                           iii. Integration


d. Artists, Writers, top Actors                                                iv. Pattern Maintenance


Codes:


a          b          c         d


(A)       i           ii          iii         iv


(B)       iv         iii         ii          i


(C)       iii         ii          i           iv


(D)       ii          i           iv         iii


Answer: (A)





31. Who made the following statement in the Constituent Assembly in connection with the Amendment Procedure of the Constitution of India?


‘That while we want this Constitution to be solid and as permanent as a structure we can make it, nevertheless there is no permanence in Constitutions. … If you make anything rigid and permanent, you stop the Nation’s growth, the growth of a living, vital organic people’.


(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar


(B) Jawaharlal Nehru


(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel


(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad


Answer: (B)





32. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during National Emergency?


(A) Articles 14 and 15


(B) Articles 19 and 20


(C) Articles 21 and 22


(D) Articles 20 and 21


Answer: (D)





33. Who among the following called Jayaprakash Narain, Ram Manohar Lohia and other Socialists as Japanese agents during 1942 movement?


(A) Communist Party of India


(B) Akali Dal


(C) Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh


(D) Muslim League


Answer: (A)





34. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.


Assertion (A): Caste system was an epitome of the traditional society, a ‘closed system’, where generation after generation of individuals did similar kinds of work and lived more or less similar kinds of lives.


Reason (R): Caste system encapsulated within it the features of a social structure and normative religious behaviour, and even provided a fairly comprehensive idea about the personal lives of individuals living in the Hindu Caste Society.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.


(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.


Answer: (B)





35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.


Assertion (A): Over the years, the Supreme Court of India has failed to demonstrate a commitment to preserving constitutional liberty, and expanding and protecting human rights.


Reason (R): The Supreme Court has played and continues to play a critical role in shaping India’s constitutional democracy far beyond that which the drafters of the Constitution envisaged or what courts in other countries play.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.


Answer: (D)





36. Which one of the following is not applicable to Public Interest Litigation?


(A) Constitutional obligation of the Judiciary towards the marginalised sections of society.


(B) Locus standi.


(C) Public spirited citizens can move the court on behalf of the poor.


(D) Judiciary overlooks a strict construction of procedural formalities in entertaining petitions.


Answer: (B)





37. Which among the following pertains to the sixty first Constitutional Amendment?


(A) Ninth Schedule


(B) Defection


(C) Amendment of Article 368


(D) Lowering of voting age


Answer: (D)





38. The Sikhs got special electorates in which of the following Acts?


(A) Indian Councils Act, 1892


(B) Indian Councils Act, 1909


(C) Government of India Act, 1919


(D) Government of India Act, 1935


Answer: (C)





39. Which of the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru?


(A) Steering Committee


(B) Union Powers Committee


(C) Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities


(D) Provincial Constitution Committee


Answer: (B)





40. Who among the following developed the concept, ‘derivative discourse’?


(A) Ashish Nandy


(B) Partha Chatterjee


(C) Ashutosh Varshney


(D) Sudipta Kaviraj


Answer: (B)





41. MNREGA is not associated with which of the following?


(A) Providing Employment


Opportunities


(B) Reduction of poverty


(C) Preventing Distress Migration


(D) Agrarian crises


Answer: (D)





42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                    List – II


Commission/Committee          Issues


a. Mahajan Commission          i. Maharashtra- Karnataka Boundary Dispute


b. Sri Krishna Commission     ii. Muslim Minority


c. Punchi Commission             iii. Telengana/A.P.


d. Sachar Committee              iv. Centre-State Relations


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       ii          iv         i           iii


(B)       i           iii         iv         ii


(C)       iii         ii          i           iv


(D)       iv         i           iii         ii


Answer: (B)


43. Who among the following first initiated the study of State Politics in India?


(A) Iqbal Narain


(B) Paul R. Brass


(C) Stanley Kochanak


(D) Myron Weiner


Answer: (D)





44. Which one of the following was the largest Opposition party in the Eighth Lok Sabha (1984)?


(A) Bhartiya Janata Party


(B) Communist Party of India


(C) Telugu Desam Party


(D) National Lok Dal


Answer: (C)





45. With which of the following States, was the Programme, Janmabhoomi associated?


(A) Kerala


(B) Karnataka


(C) Tamil Nadu


(D) Andhra Pradesh


Answer: (D)





46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                        List – II


(Approach)                  (Characteristics)


a. Behavioural             1. Agrarian- Transition Industrialization


b. Bureaucratic            2. Administrative system as a subsystem of the society


c. Ecological                3. Analyses of human behavior in administrative settings


d. General Systems     4. Legal-Rational Authority


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       2          3          4          1


(B)       3          4          1          2


(C)       1          2          3          4


(D)       4          1          2          3


Answer: (B)





47. Which of the following is concerned with the substantive functions of the Government?


(A) Staff Agency


(B) Line Agency


(C) Auxiliary Agency


(D) Staff and Auxiliary Agencies


Answer: (B)





48. Who among the following termed the four different bases of organization as four Ps?


(A) Luther Gulick


(B) L.D. White


(C) Henry Fayol


(D) Herbert Simon


Answer: (A)





49. The chief reason for delegation of authority from headquarters to field officers is to


(A) Facilitate decision-making at the local level.


(B) Inculcate skills in the field officers.


(C) Control the field office.


(D) Decongest the headquarters.


Answer: (D)





50. Which of the following are the characteristics of development administration?


1. Change-orientation


2. Client orientation


3. Citizen-participative orientation


4. Ecological perspective


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) 1 and 2


(B) 2 and 3


(C) 1, 2 and 4


(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer: (D)





51. Domicile qualification for public services was first prescribed by


(A) The United States of America


(B) U.K.


(C) India


(D) France


Answer: (A)





52. Which one of the following is the Cadre-controlling authority for the Indian Police Service?


(A) The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions


(B) The Ministry of Home Affairs


(C) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)


(D) Cabinet Secretary


Answer: (A)





53. The process of transferring funds from one budget head to another of the same department where there is a need for more expenditure is called


(A) Transfer


(B) Re-allocation


(C) Re-appropriation


(D) Sectorial allocation


Answer: (C)


54. Promotion generally means


1. Change in position


2. Change in duties


3. Change in title


4. Change in pay


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) 1 and 2


(B) 1, 2 and 3


(C) 1, 3 and 4


(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer: (D)





55. Which of the following statements are correct?


1. Panchayati Raj is mentioned in the Constitution as a Directive Principle.


2. Sadiq Ali Committee was appointed to report on the working of the Panchayat system in India.


3. G.V.K. Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission.


4. Local Government figures in State List.


Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


Codes:


(A) 1, 3 and 4


(B) 2, 3 and 4


(C) 1, 2 and 3


(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Answer: (A)





56. Who among the following has termed bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors”?


(A) R.K. Merton


(B) M. Crozer


(C) Max Weber


(D) C.N. Parkinson


Answer: (B)





57. Who is the Chairperson of the National Council of Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM)?


(A) Cabinet Secretary


(B) Secretary for Home Affairs


(C) Personnel Secretary


(D) Finance Secretary


Answer: (A)





58. Of all the controls over Public Administration the one which is more continuous and self-corrective is


(A) Controlled by the Legislature


(B) Controlled by the Executive


(C) Controlled by the Judiciary


(D) Controlled by the Media


Answer: (B)





59. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): A few years back, the Government of India started what is known as “file jumping experiment”.


Reason (R): Hierarchical structure causes inordinate delay in the disposal of work.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (A)





60. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Planning Commission in India is neither a Statutory Body nor a Constitutional Body.


Reason (R): It was established by an Act of Parliament.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (C)





61. With which liberal thinker would you associate “Democratic Peace Theory”?


(A) Michael Doyle


(B) James Rosenau


(C) Richard Falk


(D) Michael Walzer


Answer: (A)





62. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): Regimes represent an important feature of globalization.


Reason (R): The onset of détente, the loss of hegemonic status by the USA and the growing awareness of environmental problems sensitized social scientists.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (B)





63. Who said, “Power in International Politics is like the weather. Everyone talks about it, but few understand it”?


(A) Hans J. Morganthau


(B) Henry Kissinger


(C) Joseph Nye


(D) Susan Strange


Answer: (C)





64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                                                        List – II


(Reasons of failure)                                                     (States)


a. Tribal conflict                                                          i. Rwanda


b. Endless violence for nonpolitical purposes             ii. Somalia


c. Ethnic genocide                                                      iii. Congo


d. Transnational war                                                   iv. Liberia


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       ii          iv         i           iii


(B)       i           iii         iv         ii


(C)       iv         ii          iii         i


(D)       iii         i           ii          iv


Answer: (A)





65. Chronologically arrange the arms control and disarmament agreements in an ascending order.


1. Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty (SORT) - 2002


2. Chemical Weapons Convention - 1993


3. Open Skies Treaty - 1992


4. Ottawa Landmine Convention – 1997


Codes:


(A) 4, 1, 3, 2


(B) 1, 4, 2, 3


(C) 3, 2, 4, 1


(D) 2, 3, 1, 4


Answer: (C)





66. Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).


Assertion (A): The Post-Cold War period is a multi-polar moment in a unipolar world.


Reason (R): America remains the world’s pre-eminent actor, but it is also stretched militarily, in debt financially, divided domestically and unpopular internationally.


Codes:


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).


(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.


(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Answer: (D)





67. With which Doctrine is “Containment” associated?


(A) Dulles Doctrine


(B) Truman Doctrine


(C) Nixon Doctrine


(D) Roosevelt Doctrine


Answer: (B)





68. Which country has the world’s largest reserves of natural gas, the second largest coal reserves, and the eighth largest oil reserves?


(A) Iran


(B) USA


(C) Saudi Arabia


(D) Russia


Answer: (D)





69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:


List – I                                                                                                                                                            List – II


(Books)                                                                                                                                   (Authors)


a. A Hundred Horizons: The Indian Ocean in the Age of Global Empire.


i. C. Raja Mohan


b. Global Swing States: Brazil, India, Indonesia, Turkey and the Future of International Order.


ii. Sugato Bose


c. War in the Indian Ocean


iii. David Kliman & Richard Fontaine


d. Samundra Manthan: Sino Indian Rivalry in the Indo-Pacific


iv. Vice- Admiral Mihir Kumar Roy


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       iv         i           ii          iii


(B)       iii         iv         i           ii


(C)       ii          iii         iv         i


(D)       i           ii          iii         iv


Answer: (C)





70. Which countries were identified as the “Axis of Evil” by President Bush in his State of Union Speech in 2002?


(A) Russia, China, Iran


(B) Iran, Iraq, Syria


(C) Cuba, Venezuela, Russia


(D) Iraq, Iran, North Korea


Answer: (D)





71. When was the UN Peace building Commission established?


(A) January 2003


(B) December 2004


(C) December 2005


(D) January 2006


Answer: (C)





72. As part of a regional initiative, India initiated the 2004 Tokyo Agreement. Name the organization which emerged as a result.


(A) BRICS


(B) ARF


(C) ReCAAP


(D) IOR-ARC


Answer: (C)





73. Name the military strategist who stated that all war is based on deception and praised it as the ‘divine art of subtlety and secrecy.’


(A) Clausewitz


(B) Kautilya


(C) Sun Tzu


(D) Machiavelli


Answer: (C)





74. Name the person who headed the United Nations Monitoring, Verification and Inspection Commission (UNMOVIC) to Iraq in 2002?


(A) Kofi Annan


(B) Hans Blix


(C) David Petraeus


(D) Colin Powell


Answer: (B)





75. Which among the following States least influences India’s Foreign Policy?


(A) Jammu and Kashmir


(B) West Bengal


(C) Madhya Pradesh


(D) Tamil Nadu


Answer: (C)


UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Political Science { 2013 September }

10/19/2017 0
UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Political Science { 2013 September }

1. Which among the following is correct regarding the decline of Political theory?

(A) Historicism

(B) Hyper factualism

(C) Moral relativism

(D) All of the above

Answers: (D)



2. Who among the following is not an exponent of contextualism?

(A) Skinner

(B) Pocock

(C) Winch

(D) Wittgenstein

Answers: (D)



3. Who amongst the following is a defender of Plato?

(A) Popper

(B) Crossman

(C) Berlin

(D) Levinson

Answers: (D)



4. Who defines citizen as sharing “in the civic life of ruling and being ruled in turn”?

(A) Plato

(B) Aristotle

(C) Polybius

(D) Cicero

Answers: (B)



5. Amongst the following whose political theory is based on nominalism?

(A) Hobbes

(B) Locke

(C) Rousseau

(D) Green

Answers: (A)



6. John Locke’s ‘Two Treatises on Civil Government is a critique of

(A) Hobbes

(B) Filmer

(C) Grotius

(D) Diggers

Answers: (B)



7. Which among the following is correct?

General Will refers to

(A) My Own Real Will

(B) Group Mind

(C) A common me

(D) All of the above

Answers: (D)



8. Who among the following thought of human beings as ‘home faber’?

(A) St. Simon

(B) Guizot

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Sismondi

Answers: (C)



9. Who among the following says that the workers do not spontaneously become socialists, but only trade unionists, and revolutionary ideology must in consequence be brought to them by professional revolutionaries?

(A) Marx

(B) M.N. Roy

(C) Mao

(D) Lenin

Answers: (D)



10. Which among the following is correct so far as Aurobindo beliefs are concerned?

(A) Belief that his education and talent belong to God which could not be utilised for personal happiness alone.

(B) His resolve that he would not merely repeat the name of God, but have direct realisation of Him.

(C) His conviction that he did not regard the country as an inert object, but as the Mother.

(D) All of the above.

Answers: (D)

11. Who among the following criticized Marxian theory of surplus value?

(A) Savarkar

(B) M.N. Roy

(C) Aurobindo

(D) Jayaprakash Narayan

Answers: (B)



12. Who among the following said: “Those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means”?

(A) Aurobindo

(B) M.K. Gandhi

(C) Subhas Bose

(D) M.N. Roy

Answers: (B)



13. Identify the correct sequence of the books written by F.A. Hayek

(i) Rules and Order

(ii) The Mirage of Social Justice

(iii) The Constitution of Liberty

(iv) The Road to Serfdom

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Answers: (C)



14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

(Authors)                     (Books)

a. M. Sandel                i. The Restructuring of Social and Political theory

b. M. Waltzer              ii. Contemporary Political Philosophy

c. W. Kymlicka           iii. Spheres of Justice: A Defence of Pluralism and Equality

d. R.J. Bernstein         iv. Liberalism and the Limits of Justice

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) ii i iv iii

Answers: (B)



15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Great Political theories, originated as Sabine put it, in the interstices of Political and Social crises.

Reason (R): There is no disinterested political theory.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (A)



16. According to Almond and Verba the individuals, in a parochial culture have low

(A) Cognitive Orientation about the Political System, its leaders and operation.

(B) Affective Orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.

(C) Evaluative orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.

(D) All of the above.

Answers: (D)



17. The ‘Block Vote System’ is also known as

(A) First-past-the-post system

(B) Limited vote system

(C) Proportional representation

(D) List system

Answers: (A)



18. In the American Presidential election, in case no candidate secures the required majority, the decision is referred to the

(A) Electorate

(B) Electoral college

(C) Senate

(D) House of Representatives

Answers: (D)



19. According to S.P. Huntigton Political Development takes place when

(A) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is greater than Institutionalisation.

(B) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is lesser than Institutionalisation.

(C) There is rigidity in the Institutions.

(D) There is no generational change in Institutions.

Answers: (B)



20. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Model)

a. Party Identification Model             i. linking voting behaviour to group membership.

b. Sociological Model                         ii. Voting a national actor.

c. National Choice Model                   iii. Voting shaped by process of ideological manipulation.

d. Dominant Ideology Model                         iv. Psychological attachment of people to political parties.

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) ii iv iii i

(C) iv i ii iii

(D) i ii iii iv

Answers: (C)

21. The concept of Unified and divided government was invented in the U.S.A. Divided Government means

(i) That the Presidency is held by one party and Senate of the Congress is controlled by the other party.

(ii) That the Presidency is held by one party the House of Representative of the congress is held by the other party.

(iii) That the Presidency is held by one party and both the chambers of Congress are controlled by the other party.

(iv) That the Presidency and both the chambers of congress are under the control of same party.

Select the correct answer from the following codes:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answers: (C)



22. Who among the following regards political development as political modernization plus institutionalization?

(A) Almond

(B) Helio Jaquaribe

(C) Cyril Black

(D) None of the above

Answers: (B)



23. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Schools of Modernization)    (Writers)

a. Psychological School          i. Daniel Lerner

b. Structural School                ii. G.A. Almond

c. Normative School               iii. Sheldon Wolin

d. Post-modernist School        iv. Lyotard

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) iii ii iv i

Answers: (A)



24. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Authors)                                 (Books)

a. Walter Rodney                    i. Theories of Under development and Development

b. Geoffray Kay                      ii. How Europe Under developed Africa

c. Ronald H. Chilcote                         iii. Development and under development: A Marxist Analysis

d. Joseph Schumpeter                         iv. Imperialism: Social classes

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) ii iii iv i

(D) ii iii i iv

Answers: (D)



25. The pressure groups – the National Council of Churches and the Anti-Saloon League are in

(A) The United States of America

(B) The United Kingdom

(C) India

(D) Switzerland

Answers: (A)



26. Name the variety of motives that can underpin the decision to join interest groups provided by James Wilson.

(i) Instrumental

(ii) Purposive

(iii) Expressive

(iv) Selective Incentives

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answers: (C)



27. Who of the following makes a distinction between liberal constitutionalism and Democratic disorder?

(A) Francis Fukuyama

(B) Theda Skocpol

(C) B.F. Skinner

(D) Fareed Zakaria

Answers: (B)



28. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                                                    List – II

a. Pre-occupations with faction and pressure groups.             i. Robert Dahl

b. Managerial Revolution                                                        ii. Burnham

c. Participatory Democracy                                                     iii. Pateman

d. Instrumentalist theory of the state                                      iv. Miliband

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) i iii ii iv

(C) iv iii ii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answers: (A)



29. Which of the following are the features of the list system of voting?

(i) The Constituencies are both single and multi-member ones.

(ii) The Constituencies are only multi-member ones.

(iii) The voters vote for the individual candidates.

(iv) Parties put up a panel of candidates for election.

Select the correct answer:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.

(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answers: (D)



30. Assertion (A): Lucian Pye identified three key ingredients of Political development as equality, capacity and differentiation.

Reason (R): High level of differentiation leads to development and capacity building.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answers: (A)



31. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

(Prime Minister)          (Tenure of the Prime Minister)

a. I.K. Gujral               i. 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996

b. A.B. Vajpayee        ii. 21 April 1997 – 18 March 1998

c. H.D. Deve Gowda iii. 10 November 1990 – 21 June, 1991

d. Chandra Shekhar    iv. 1 June, 1996 – 20 April, 1997

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) i iii iv ii

(D) iii ii i iv

Answers: (B)



32. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the passage of the Budget?

1. Voting on Grants

2. General Discussion

3. Finance Bill

4. Appropriation Bill

Select the correct code from the following:

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3

(B) 3, 2, 1, 4

(C) 3, 1, 2, 4

(D) 1, 2, 4, 3

Answers: (B)



33. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood.

(B) Protection of language, script or culture of minorities.

(C) The state shall endeavour to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and to improve public health.

(D) To develop cottage industries.

Answers: (B)



34. Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.

Reason (R): Under a Parliamentary system of Government, the head of State is only a nominal head.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answers: (A)



35. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of the Parliament.

Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answers: (A)



36. Which one of the following committees, is an exclusive committee of Rajya Sabha?

(i) Committee on Subordinate Legislation.

(ii) Committee on Government Assurance.

(iii) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table.

(iv) Committee on Public Undertakings.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (iv), (iii), (ii)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii)

Answers: (D)



37. According to Article 170, the maximum members of the State Legislative Assemblies which are directly elected could be

(A) 403

(B) 485

(C) 484

(D) 500

Answers: (D)



38. Who is the editor/author of the book – “Politics and the State in India”?

(A) M.N. Srinivas

(B) Dharma Kumar

(C) Zoya Hasan

(D) Atul Kohli

Answers: (C)



39. Which of the following has been provided by the Indian Constitution?

(A) Religious education cannot be imparted in private educational institutions.

(B) In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.

(C) In private religious institutions presence is compulsory in religious education.

(D) Religious education can be imparted in government educational institutions.

Answers: (B)



40. Which of the following is not a peasants’ movement?

(A) Kheda Movement

(B) Tabligh Movement

(C) Telangana Movement

(D) Tebhaga Movement

Answers: (B)



41. Which of the following phrase has been used by Bendict Anderson for Indian Nationalism?

(A) Polycentric Nationalism

(B) Ethnocentric Nationalism

(C) Imagined community

(D) Liberal Nationalism

Answers: (C)



42. Which of the following is Atul Kohli’s definition of the crisis of governability in India as

(i) The absence of enduring coalitions.

(ii) Policy ineffectiveness.

(iii) An incapacity to accommodate political conflict without violence.

(iv) Growing disjuncture between centralization and development.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Answers: (A)



43. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

(Authors)                                             (Ideas)

a. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph          i. State is Chief allocator of resources and Chief facilitator among social groups.

b. Partha Chatterjee                            ii. Indian State embedded in group and class pluralism.

c. Frankel and MSA Rao                    iii. Over developed post-colonial state.

d. Hamza Alavi                                   iv. Democratic politics split between public institutions and political institutions.

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) iii iv ii i

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) i ii iii iv

Answers: (C)



44. Who pointed out that the western antonym of “secular” is “religious”. But in India, the antonym of “secular” is “communal”?

(A) T.N. Madan

(B) Rajeev Bhargav

(C) Ashis Nandy

(D) Thomas Pantham

Answers: (D)



45. Which one is not an element of the Secular State is India?

(A) Civil Equality.

(B) Freedom of Religion.

(C) No religious education by the State.

(D) Taxation on religious property.

Answers: (D)



46. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Authors)                                 (Books)

a. Seldon Oliver                      i. A power of Public Administration

b. Lepaworky Albert (ed.)      ii. The Philosophy of Management

c. Ashok Chanda                    iii. Administration the Art and Science of Organisation and Management

d. Finer S.E.                            iv. Indian Administration

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) i iv iii ii

(C) ii iii iv i

(D) iii i ii iv

Answers: (C)



47. In India promotion cases of senior Civil Servants are decided by

(A) The Head Office

(B) The Departmental Promotion Committee

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Committee

Answers: (D)



48. Who among the following says that Public Administration includes the operations only of the executive branch of Government?

(A) Luther Gulick

(B) L.D. White

(C) W.F. Willoughby

(D) L.D. White and Luther Gulick

Answers: (A)



49. The concept of the “Zone of indifference” is associated with

(A) Motivation

(B) Authority

(C) Leadership

(D) Decision-making

Answers: (B)



50. Which of the following is a feature of Public Corporation?

(A) It enjoys complete administrative autonomy from the control from ministry.

(B) It has its own budget separate from National Budget.

(C) It has complete autonomy in the Management of funds.

(D) It enjoys the initiative of a Private Enterprise.

Answers: (A)



51. Which of the following is not included in “hygiene” factors in the Herzberg two-factor theory of motivation?

(A) Responsibility

(B) Salary

(C) Working conditions

(D) Company policy

Answers: (A)



52. The term “Performance Budget was coined by

(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India.

(B) First Hoover Commission of USA.

(C) Second Hoover Commission of USA.

(D) Estimates Committee of India.

Answers: (B)



53. Which one of the following was not the recommendation of Administrative Reforms Commission in India about the working of Public Corporation?

(A) High functionaries should be full time employees.

(B) Secretary of the Ministry concerned should always be included as the member of the board of Management.

(C) Internal audit should be made more effective.

(D) All of the above.

Answers: (B)



54. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of

(A) Duties

(B) Salaries

(C) Personal status of incumbents

(D) Departments

Answers: (A)



55. The Civil Service was defined as a “Professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by

(A) Felix Nigro

(B) O.G. Stahl

(C) Herman Finer

(D) E.N. Gladden

Answers: (C)



56. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists?

(A) Kothari Committee Report

(B) Sarkaria Committee Report

(C) Haldane Committee Report

(D) Fulton Committee Report

Answers: (D)



57. Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the services has been provided under

(A) Article 315

(B) Article 335

(C) Article 365

(D) Article 375

Answers: (B)



58. The “Gang-Plank” refers to

(A) Equity

(B) Level jumping

(C) Initiative

(D) Motivation

Answers: (B)



59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Public Corporation?

(A) It is a legal identity.

(B) It can neither sue nor can be sued.

(C) It can enter into contracts.

(D) It can own property.

Answers: (B)



60. Assertion (A): The All-India Services do not violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of the states.

Reason (R): The All-India Service Officers are governed by the Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (D)



61. Under which theoretical approach will you place Alexander Wendt?

(A) Post modernism

(B) Critical theory

(C) Neo-Marxism

(D) Social constructivism

Answers: (D)



62. What is the correct ascending chronological order of the treaties give below:

(i) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.

(ii) Landmines Ban Treaty.

(iii) Chemical Weapons Agreement.

(iv) Indefinite Extension of NPT.

Codes:

(A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Answers: (B)



63. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

(Type of Political Systems)                             (Countries)

a. Constitutionally decentralized unions.        i. USA

b. Union with certain federal features.           ii. UK

c. Confederation                                             iii. India

d. Federation                                                   iv. Switzerland

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) iii ii i iv

(C) iv i ii iii

(D) i iv iii ii

Answers: (A)



64. Origin of the Communication approach can be traced to

(A) Biology

(B) Philosophy

(C) Anthropology

(D) Cybernetic Engineering

Answers: (D)



65. Third tier states are states as stated by Steven Metz are marked by

(A) Corruption

(B) Crisis of Governance

(C) Issues of Sovereignty

(D) Periodic instability

Answers: (B)



66. The concept of the League of Nations was conceived in the ideas of

(A) E.H. Carr

(B) Kaiser Wilhem

(C) Woodrow Wilson

(D) Franklin D. Roosevelt

Answers: (C)



67. Assertion (A): the emergence and strengthening of regional parties are connected.

Reason (R): Regionalism from below has its roots in distinctive cultures and identities.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true and (A) is false.

Answers: (A)



68. Which one of the determinants of Indian Foreign Policy is not the reason for defacto recognition of Israel by India before 1980?

(A) Economic factor

(B) Pluralist nature of Indian Society

(C) History and tradition of India

(D) Ideology of Indian Nation

Answers: (C)



69. Which one of the countries was not a member of the Commission appointed by the Security Council to solve the Indo-Pak Kashmir dispute?

(A) Argentina

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Columbia

(D) U.S.S.R.

Answers: (D)



70. “Hot Line” in International Relations means

(A) Fascimile Transmission Capability to Direct Communication Link (DCL)

(B) To send Graphic Material via DCL.

(C) Direct Communication between Head of States (Head of Governments)

(D) As above of all.

Answers: (D)



71. Indo-Bangladesh relations were strained because of one of the followings reasons:

(A) Agreement over the claim of adverse enclaves.

(B) To construct Akhaura-Agartala link.

(C) To setup border market along the Bangladesh-Meghalaya border.

(D) Teesta River water distribution.

Answers: (D)



72. Assertion (A): Each state now goes to great lengths to manipulate media images of the conflict, and journalists have effectively been transformed from observers into active participants.

Reason (R): Media warfare is setting agendas and manufacturing consent.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)



73. Answer the following Indo-Pak agreements in chronological order:

(i) Agra Accord

(ii) Tashkent Agreement

(iii) Lahore Agreement

(iv) Shimla Agreement

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answers: (C)



74. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Countries)                  (Problems)

a. Pakistan                   i. Illegal immigrants

b. Bangladesh                         ii. Baghlihar Hydro project

c. Nepal                       iii. Transitory Passage

d. China                      iv. Tawang Incident

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iii ii i iv

(D) iv iii ii i

Answers: (B)



75. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Countries)                              (Dispute)

a. Cambodia – Vietnam          i. Spratlys Island

b. Myanmar – Thailand           ii. Ladrang and Islands of baie

c. Malaysia – Philippines         iii. Dai Lang

d. Vietnam – Philippines         iv. Sabah/North Borneo

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) iv i ii iii

Answers: (A)