Tourism Administration and Management 2012 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper III
1. Assertion (A): The interaction between tourists and the host community can be one of the factors that may affect a community.
Reason (R): As the tourists may not be sensitive to local customs, tradition and standards.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
2. Assertion (A): The bed-and-breakfast (B & B) concept began where a family would open their home to traveller.
Reason (R): The successful B & B operators are those providing guests with same positive experience again and again.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
3. Assertion (A): The desire to learn from and experience other cultures heightened awareness of the educational benefits to be gained from travel which led to the Grand Tour era.
Reason (R): Reports of Marco Polo’s travels and adventures continued to heighten interest in travel and trade.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
4. This consists of two lists of the milestones and the development of tourism. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Milestones) (Development of Tourism)
a. 1760 BC to 1027 BC 1. Shang dynasties established trade routes to distant locations throughout the Far East.
b. 1100 BC to 800 BC 2. Greeks developed common language, currency and travel services resulting in the emerge of city states which became destinations.
c. 900 BC to 200 BC 3. Phoenicians developed large sailing fleets for trade and travel throughout their empire.
d. 500 BC to AD 300 4. Romans improved roads, legal system, and inns to further travel for commerce, adventure and pleasure.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Answer: (C)
5. Assertion (A): The level of tourism interest and activity in a specific area often depends on a combination of both physical and human geography that come together, making certain locations more attractive than others.
Reason (R): Climate also influences the level and type of tourism activity.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
6. Which of the following sequential itineraries is/are correct?
I. Honolulu -> Tokyo -> Vancouver -> Oslo
II. Los Angeles -> Washington DC -> Paris -> Dubai
III. Rio de Janeiro -> Cape Town ->Mauritius ->Singapore
IV. Dubai -> Colombo -> Singapore -> Yangon
Codes:
(A) None are correct
(B) II, III are correct
(C) I & IV are correct
(D) All are correct
Answer: (B)
7. This consists of two lists of types of journey and itinerary. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other
List – I List – II
a. Round the World 1. BOM -> CCU -> PAT -> IXU
b. One Way 2. DEL -> JAI -> BOM -> BLR
c. Open Jaw 3. DEL -> KHI -> DXB -> DEL
d. Circular trip 4. DEL -> PAR -> WAS -> TYO -> DEL
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
Answer: (A)
8. Assertion (A): Beach Tourism is popular among all types of tourism.
Reason (R): Beach Tourism is a good combination of adventure and leisure activities.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
9. This consists of two lists of Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Sanctuaries/National Parks. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Types of Natural Vegetation) (Name of Wild Life Sanctuaries/ National Parks)
a. Tidal forest 1. Sunder ban
b. Alpine forest 2. Dachigam
c. Evergreen forest 3. Manas
d. Tropical Deciduous forest 4. Mudumalai
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 3 2 4
Answer: (B)
10. If a mountaineer ascends a mountain at fast speed, he may suffer Acute Mountain Sickness due to
I. Low Air Pressure
II. Poor Visibility
III. Poor Digestion
IV. Poor Acclimatization
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) I & II are correct.
(C) I & IV are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Answer: (C)
11. Which of the following are biosphere reserves?
I. Nanda Devi
II. Nilgiri
III. Simlipal
IV. Dudhwa
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) I & II are correct.
(C) I & IV are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Answer: (A)
12. The list consists of two lists of folk dances and their places. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List – I List – II
(Folk Dance) (State)
a. Giddha 1. Assam
b. Lavani 2. Punjab
c. Jatra 3. Maharashtra
d. Bihu 4. West Bengal
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: (B)
13. Identify the sequence of the four Indian hotel chains according to the year of their establishment.
I. Lemon tree group of hotels
II. Oberoi group of hotels
III. Welcome group hotels
IV. Taj group hotels
(A) III, II, IV, I
(B) II, III, I, IV
(C) IV, II, III, I
(D) I, III, II, IV
Answer: (C)
14. Identify the Indian “Café” brand originated from the State of Karnataka competing with the international coffee chains.
(A) Costa Coffee
(B) Coffee Café Day
(C) Barista
(D) Star Bucks
Answer: (B)
15. Arrange the following according to the hierarchy using the code given below:
I. Commis I
II. Executive chef
III. Sous chef
IV. Chef d’ partie
Codes:
(A) IV, III, I, II
(B) III, IV, II, I
(C) I, II, III, IV
(D) II, III, IV, I
Answer: (D)
16. ‘Chef d’ rang” is
(A) Position in the kitchen
(B) Position in the restaurant
(C) Position in the housekeeping department
(D) Position in the front office
Answer: (B)
17. ‘Bloody Mary” and Screw driver” are
(A) Brand of liquors served in hotel bars.
(B) Classical cocktails served in hotel bars.
(C) Classical mocktails served in hotel bars.
(D) Brands of soft drinks served in hotel bars.
Answer: (B)
18. Government of India conducts national level hospitality training under the ambit of
(A) National Council for Hotel Management and Catering Technology.
(B) Federation of Hotel and Restaurant Association of India.
(C) Central Board of Vocational and Secondary Education.
(D) Indian Institute of Hotel Management.
Answer: (A)
19. Which one of the following is correctly stated?
(A) Tajmahal Palace Hotels and Resorts are first LEED certified hotel in India.
(B) Vivanta by Taj are the first LEED certified hotel in India.
(C) ITC Gardinea hotel is the first LEED certified hotel in India.
(D) Trident hotel of Oberois is the first LEED certified hotel in India.
Answer: (C)
20. This consists of two lists of the Tax and the Explanations. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Name of Tax) (Explanation for Taxes Collected)
a. Air Transport Tax 1. A fee assessed by the Central Government to defray customs operations at gateway airports.
b. International Departure Tax 2. A charge imposed by an Airport authority to fund an improvement of the infrastructure.
c. Customer User Fee 3. A Central tax applied to air transportation within India.
d. Passenger Facility Charge 4. A tax assessed by the Indian Government from passengers who depart from India to an international destination
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (C)
21. The fares that must be purchased in advance of the departure date and require travel to originate and terminate at the same point is known as
(A) Individual fare
(B) Group fare
(C) Excursion fare
(D) Transit fare
Answer: (C)
22. Dates representing a period of high demand, during which a particular fare is invalid
(A) Booking dates
(B) Valid dates
(C) Back out dates
(D) Invalid dates
Answer: (C)
23. The segment of the business market that includes employees of governments, schools, hospitals etc.
(A) Corporate Travel
(B) Affinity Travel
(C) Institutional Travel
(D) All inclusive Travel
Answer: (C)
24. A unit of measurement determined when one passenger travels miles on a transportation by Air carrier
(A) Carbon Miles
(B) Passenger Kilometers
(C) Passenger Mile
(D) Transportation Miles
Answer: (C)
25. This list consists of two lists of names of Sanctuaries and States, the candidate has to match an item in the List-I with Item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Name of Sanctuary) (Name of State)
a. Radhanagari 1. Maharashtra
b. Jaladpara 2. Assam
c. Betla 3. Jharkhand
d. Manas 4. West Bengal
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Answer: (A)
26. This consists of two lists of names of Dynasties and names of Temples. The candidate has to match an item in the List-I with an item in the List-II.
List – I List – II
(Name of Dynasty) (Name of the Temple)
a. Early Chalukyan 1. Hazararama
b. Hoysala 2. Vaikuntha Perumal
c. Pallava 3. Chinnakesava
d. Vijayanagara 4. Papanatha
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Answer: (C)
27. Employees who work at Airport for booking reservations, weighting and checking luggage, and issuing tickets are known as
(A) Traffic Assistant
(B) Airport Agent
(C) Ground Staff
(D) Airport Assistant
Answer: (C)
28. A package tour that includes the services of a tour representative accompanied at each destination
(A) Excursion tour
(B) Escorted tour
(C) Hosted tour
(D) Minimum tour
Answer: (B)
29. Any package tour including two or more components such as airfare and accommodation designed for a specific client is known as
(A) Free Individual Travel
(B) Group Inclusive Travel
(C) Leisure Travel
(D) Corporate Travel
Answer: (A)
30. A document issued by a travel agency or vendor authorizing transportation or some other travel service to a specified person.
(A) Amenities voucher
(B) Miscellaneous charges order
(C) Voucher
(D) Saver passes
Answer: (B)
31. This consists of two lists of terms and statements and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List - I List - II
a. Bottom up approach 1. Formulation of policy with inputs from beneficiaries.
b. Top down approach 2. Mandate for developments in all sectors.
c. Participative approach 3. Setting up of policy framework with expert knowledge of policy makers.
d. Inclusive approach 4. Creation of the blue print of the policy with the support of policy makers, planners and local community.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 4 2 1 3
Answer: (C)
32. Which one of the following is not correctly stated?
(A) Eco tourism is an important form of nature based tourism.
(B) Eco tourism is community oriented and driven.
(C) Eco tourism is government led and private sector controlled.
(D) Eco tourism is an important form of sustainable tourism.
Answer: (C)
33. Which one of the following is correctly stated?
(A) Carrying capacity is measured on the basis of expectation of visitors.
(B) Carrying capacity is measured on the basis of the perception of the visitors.
(C) Carrying capacity is carried out on the basis of facilities and amenities.
(D) Carrying capacity is estimated by taking into tourist foot falls.
Answer: (D)
34. Identify the correct sequential order of the authors given these definitions:
(a) Travelling to relatively undisturbed and uncontaminated natural areas ……… cultural manifestations.
(b) The intricate relationship between tourists, environment and culture ……… Eco tourism.
(c) Tourism that involves travelling to relatively undisturbed natural areas ……… (Both of the past and the present) found in these areas.
(d) Alternative tourism is an umbrella term covering a range of new forms of tourism ………the perceived costs of mass tourism.
Authors:
1. Ceballos – Lascurian
2. Hetzer
3. UNWTO
4. Mowforth and munt
Codes:
A b c d
(A) (1) (4) (3) (2)
(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(C) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Answer: (B)
35. Assertion (A): Inclusive tourism– an innovative concept that aims at providing ample scope for socioeconomic development and ecological conservation there by minimizing negative impacts and optimizing positive impacts.
Reason (R): Eradication of poverty, unemployment, malnourishment and ignorance can be possible when tourism development is well defined and timely implemented.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
36. Assertion (A): Responsible tourism aims at promoting conservation, community participation and sustainable development.
Reason (R): Tourism destinations are intended to enforce principles of sustainable tourism like minimization of negative impacts, conservation of resources, equitable distribution of tourism revenue and expansion of tourism facilities and amenities.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
37. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Trident hotel and Ginger hotel are the budget category hotels belonged to two major chains.
Reason (R): To provide wide range of room inventory for tourists.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (B)
38. Indian Tobacco Company, a fortune 500 Company has its diversified interest in
(A) Tobacco and real estates
(B) Hotels and agri products
(C) Automobiles and Heavy industry
(D) Travel and tour operations
Answer: (B)
39. What is the meaning of multi-collinerity?
(A) A state of very high correlation among dependent variable.
(B) A state of very high inter correlations among independent variable.
(C) A close association between dependent and independent variable.
(D) A significant difference between dependent and independent variable.
Answer: (B)
40. Principle component analysis explaining the total variance is used for
(A) Factor analysis
(B) Conjoint analysis
(C) Clusture analysis
(D) Discriminant analysis
Answer: (A)
41. What is secondary data?
(A) Data originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem.
(B) Data collected for some purpose other than the problem at hand.
(C) Data collected for dealing with specific problem.
(D) Data compiled for certain purposes.
Answer: (B)
42. This consists of two lists of explanation of variables and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Independent variable 1. Variables linking a cause and-effect relationship.
b. Dependent variable 2. Unmeasured variables affecting the cause-and-effect relationship.
c. Extraneous variable 3. Change variables.
d. Intervening variable 4. Outcome/ effect variables.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Answer: (C)
43. Regression analysis is used for one of the following:
(A) To analyse associative relationship between a metric dependent variable and one or more dependent variable.
(B) To establish relationship between two and more independent variables.
(C) To find the direct relationship between two variables of a dependent variable.
(D) To study the relationship of one predictor variable.
Answer: (A)
44. This consists of type of researches and its characteristics. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
a. Explorative 1. Determining, evaluating and selecting best course of actions in a given situation.
b. Conclusive 2. Obtaining evidence regarding cause and-effect relationship.
c. Casual 3. Classification of characteristics of relevant groups.
d. Descriptive 4. Provision of insights into and understanding of the problem.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Answer: (B)
45. Which one of the following primarily makes differentiation between a “concept” and a “variable” in Social Science Research?
(A) Predictability
(B) Objectivity
(C) Measurability
(D) Variability
Answer: (C)
46. Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) Card are not permitted if the applicant’s parents / grandparents belonged to
I. Pakistan
II. Sri Lanka
III. Nepal
IV. Bhutan
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) II & III are correct.
(C) I & IV are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Answer: (D)
47. The correct relationship between NUC, ROE, and LSF is
(A) ROE = NUC x LSF
(B) LSF = NUC x ROE
(C) NUC = LSF x ROE
(D) NUC = LSF + ROE
Answer: (B)
48. Which places are included in the itinerary of ‘Deccan Odyssey’ train?
I. Goa
II. Pune
III. Aurangabad
IV. Sindhudurg
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) I & II are correct.
(C) I & III are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Answer: (D)
49. This consists of two lists of Name of Cities and Traffic Conference Areas. The Candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List – I List – II
(Name of Cities) (T.C. Area)
a. Los Angles 1. III
b. Helsinki 2. II
c. Luzon city 3. I
d. Jakarta 4. III
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 3 4
Answer: (A)
50. Assertion (A): Domestic Airlines can import Air Turbine Fuel (ATF) directly from foreign countries.
Reason (R): ATF has important share in operational cost.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
51. Calculate the flying time if a flight leaves Mumbai (+0530 Hrs.) at 0625Hrs. and arrives Manila (+0800 Hrs) at1505 Hrs.
(A) 5.10 Hrs
(B) 6.10 Hrs.
(C) 7.10 Hrs.
(D) 8.10 Hrs.
Answer: (B)
52. If a person purchases a ticket in Delhi and starts his journey from Indira Gandhi International Airport, it is a transaction;
(A) SITI
(B) SOTI
(C) SITO
(D) SOTO
Answer: (A)
53. FIFO and LIFO are methods of calculating
(A) Depreciation
(B) Inventory Valuation
(C) Net Investment
(D) Working Capital
Answer: (B)
54. Which one of the following does not affect the fund requirements or working capital requirements?
(A) Nature of Business
(B) Type of Business
(C) Sales Volume
(D) Profit Volume
Answer: (D)
55. Out of the following which are known as form of dividend?
I. Scrip II. Debenture
III. Property IV. Stock
(A) I & II
(B) II, III & IV
(C) I, III & IV
(D) I, II, III & IV
Answer: (D)
56. Functional managers are responsible
(A) For a single area activity.
(B) To upper level of management and staff.
(C) For complex organizational sub units.
(D) For obtaining copyrights and patents for newly developed processes.
Answer: (A)
57. According to Herzberg, which of the following is a maintenance factor?
(A) Salary
(B) Work itself
(C) Responsibility
(D) Recognition
Answer: (A)
58. While guiding organization members in appropriate directions, a manager exhibits
(A) Consideration behaviour
(B) Authoritarian behaviour
(C) Leadership behaviour
(D) Theory Y behaviour
Answer: (C)
59. A ______ manager is responsible for implementing the policies and plans developed by top managers and for supervising and co-ordinating the activities of low-level managers.
(A) Top level
(B) Middle level
(C) First line
(D) Low level
Answer: (B)
60. One of the most helpful mechanisms for refining a spoken or written communication is
(A) Counselling service
(B) Grapevine
(C) Five C’s
(D) Complaint management
Answer: (C)
61. Assertion (A): Perception represents the process by which meaning is attributed to an object, event or person encountered in the environment.
Reason (R): Perception can be created without experience and knowledge of the object/person.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
62. Total Quality Management (TQM) is a management approach
(A) Long term success through customer satisfaction.
(B) Continuous improvement of the quality of products and processes.
(C) Defending the quality of the product.
(D) Understanding the product development process.
Answer: (B)
63. Using tourist data from each country to aggregate total tourist demand is a method popularly known as
(A) Break down approach
(B) Form up approach
(C) Integrative approach
(D) Selective approach
Answer: (B)
64. When a marketer cannot identify the source of competition and wrongly assumes the industry structure, this behaviour is called
(A) Marketing Exopia
(B) Marketing Phobia
(C) Marketing Myopia
(D) Marketing Xenoa
Answer: (C)
65. Viral marketing is an example of
(A) Word of Mouth Communication
(B) Integrated Marketing Communication
(C) Push Model of Communication
(D) None
Answer: (A)
66. The best method of segmenting the market for tourism product and destination is
(A) Behavioural
(B) Psychological
(C) Demographic
(D) Geographic
Answer: (A)
67. Availability of market access is a necessary condition to find out
(A) Qualified target market
(B) Qualified available market
(C) Qualified market share
(D) Qualified potential market
Answer: (B)
68. Closure to the time of travel, pricing powers are with the travel service provider and further from the point of travel, the power is with the traveller.
This method of pricing is called
(A) Marginal pricing
(B) Dynamic pricing
(C) Auction pricing
(D) Base rate pricing
Answer: (B)
69. Assertion (A): Distribution channel members are fairly fluid in terms of their roles, interests, operations and perspectives.
Reason (R): The complexity of travel trade and the dissimilarity of operational practices used worldwide makes it difficult to define and establish strategies, tactics, operation features, practices and functions.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
70. A business which has enough assets to meet its liabilities but cannot convert these assets quickly enough to cash is commonly described as
(A) Over trading
(B) Over invested
(C) Technically insolvent
(D) Untapped finance
Answer: (C)
Read the passage below and answer the questions from No. 71 to 75.
The credit for preserving the Vedic Dharma in India by uniting various sectarian groups goes to Adi Guru Shankaracharya. He travelled widely all over India to unite the then opposing forces of the Vedic religion.
He started his philosophical disputations and met intellectuals of different schools of thoughts and convinced them by his logical arguments and established the supremacy of the Vedic religion. He founded the four religious peethas of muths to represent the four Vedas or Hinduism and revived the religion. He ordained that each Hindu must visit all the four religious centres once in his/her lifetime.
71. The passage clearly indicates the following. Identify the correct one :
(A) Adi Guru Shankaracharya fought against the existing domination of various religions.
(B) He became Adi Guru, as he travelled widely.
(C) Since he was born in a humble family he was able to realize the sufferings of the common people.
(D) He started philosophical debates while as a child.
Answer: (A)
72. Sri Shankaracharya established his first monastery in
(A) Puri
(B) Dwarka
(C) Varanasi
(D) Sringeri
Answer: (D)
73. Adi Guru was born in
(A) Kochhi
(B) Kaladi
(C) Pathanamthitta
(D) Aleppy
Answer: (B)
74. Sri Shankaracharya founded four religious seats. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Sringeri Muth in Karnataka
(B) Gobardan Muth in Orissa
(C) Dwarka Muth in Gujarat
(D) Joshi Muth in Kaladi
Answer: (D)
75. Assertion (A): Sri Shankaracharya went to Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu and made the Chola Kings his disciples.
Reason (R): The four Muths established by Shankaracharya became tourist destinations.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
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