-->

Social Medicine and Community Health 2012 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



Social Medicine and Community Health 2012 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper II






1. Which of the following dimensions is not included in the definition of ‘Health’ of World Health Organization?





(A) Physical





(B) Occupational





(C) Mental





(D) Social





Answer: (B)











2. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) includes the following:





(A) Infant mortality rate, per capita calorie intake and life expectancy





(B) Infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate and life expectancy





(C) Literacy status, infant mortality rate and life expectancy at birth





(D) Literacy status, life expectancy at 1 year of age, infant mortality





Answer: (D)











3. Years of life lost due to premature death and years lived with disability adjusted for the severity of the disability is known as





(A) Human Development Index (HDI)





(B) Health Adjusted Life Expectancy (HALE)





(C) Disability adjusted life years (DALY)





(D) Sullivan’s Index





Answer: (C)











4. Scales used for assessing socioeconomic status of populations are following except:





(A) Likert Scale





(B) B.G. Prasad Scale





(C) Modified Kupuswamy Scale





(D) Modified Udai Parede Scale





Answer: (A)











5. Which level of prevention is applicable for implementation in a population which is not yet exposed to risk factors?





(A) Tertiary Prevention





(B) Secondary Prevention





(C) Primary Prevention





(D) Primordial Prevention





Answer: (D)











6. This is not a Primary Prevention





(A) Isoniazid (INH) to a baby who is breast-fed by a sputum positive tubercular mother





(B) Self breast examination





(C) Vitamin A supplementation to a baby





(D) Pulse Polio Immunization





Answer: (B)











7. The concept of ‘Hospice’ is related to





(A) Special group of people helping the old and terminally ill patients.





(B) An association running orphanages for abandoned children.





(C) Family Health Advisory Service





(D) Euthanasia for terminally ill patients





Answer: (A)











8. This is incorrect in relation to International classification of Diseases and Deaths (ICD-10)





(A) The 10th revision consists of 21 major chapters.





(B) The 10th revision of ICD took place in 1995.





(C) It is revised once in 10 years.





(D) It is the standard for international comparison of morbidity and mortality.





Answer: (B)











9. If a drug prevents mortality but does not effectively cure then which of the following is true:





(A) Incidence will decrease





(B) Incidence will increase





(C) Prevalence will decrease





(D) Prevalence will increase





Answer: (D)











10. Seasonal variation of a disease can be assessed by





(A) Comparing the prevalence of disease





(B) Comparing the incidence of disease





(C) Calculating the survival rate





(D) Calculating the mortality rate





Answer: (B)











11. A disease is called endemic when:





I. It is constantly present at low rate in a specified geographic area.





II. It affects all age groups equally.





III. In favourable conditions to an agent it may burst into epidemic





IV. It can be imported into a country.





(A) III and IV correct.





(B) II and IV correct.





(C) I, III, IV correct.





(D) I, II, III correct.





Answer: (D)











12. Cigarette smoking is





Epidemiologically important contributing factor for





I. Lung cancer





II. Gastric ulcers





III. Pylonephritis





IV. Thrombo Angitis obliterance





(A) I, II and IV correct.





(B) I, II and III correct.





(C) I and III correct.





(D) II and III correct.





Answer: (A)











13. Verbal autopsy is used:





I. To assign cause of death through interview with family members





II. For examination of a dead body where post-mortem facilities are not available.





III. Carried out at places where Medical certification of cause of death is not available.





IV. Carried out with standard and structured questionnaire





(A) I, II and IV correct.





(B) II, III and IV correct.





(C) I, III and IV correct.





(D) I, II and III correct.





Answer: (C)











14. In cross sectional studies





I. Follow up is not a necessary feature.





II. All cases are seen at one point of time.





III. Chronic diseases are studied.





IV. Cause and effect relationship can be established.





(A) I, II, IV correct.





(B) I, II, III correct.





(C) II, III, IV correct.





(D) I, III, IV correct.





Answer: (B)











15. In cross over studies





I. All subjects receive the therapy of interest.





II. Not suitable if the therapy of interest cures the disease.





III. Ideally suitable if disease changes radically during the study.





IV. Not suitable if therapy of interest is effective only during a certain stage of disease.





(A) I, II, III correct.





(B) I, II, IV correct.





(C) II, III, IV correct.





(D) I, III, IV correct.





Answer: (B)











16. Which of the following constitute primary prevention?





I. Changes in life style





II. Case findings





III. Modification of environment





IV. Surgical treatment to limit damages.





(A) I, II and III correct.





(B) I, III and IV correct.





(C) I and III correct.





(D) II and IV correct.





Answer: (C)











17. The following measures constitute examples of life style modifications:





I. Aerobic exercise





II. Removal of adipose tissue.





III. Cessation of smoking





IV. Consumption of low fat diet.





(A) I, II, IV correct.





(B) II, III, IV correct.





(C) I and III correct.





(D) I, III, IV correct.





Answer: (D)











18. Following are true about mode





I. It is the most commonly observed value.





II. It is a measure of central tendency.





III. It is not affected by extreme values.





IV. It is often used for calculation of standard deviation.





(A) I, II and IV correct





(B) II and III correct





(C) I, III and IV correct





(D) I, II and III correct





Answer: (D)











19. The following recommendations were made by Bhore Committee:





I. Development of primary health centres.





II. Constitution of All India Health Services.





III. Three months training in preventive and social medicine for medical students.





IV. Multipurpose workers for primary health care.





(A) I and III correct





(B) I and IV correct





(C) I and II correct





(D) II, III and IV correct





Answer: (A)











20. Following statements are true about incidence:





I. Refers to new cases.





II. Cohort studies can be used to estimate it.





III. Denominator is a specified population.





IV. It does not have reference to a time period.





(A) I, II and IV correct





(B) I, II and III correct





(C) I and II correct





(D) II, III and IV correct





Answer: (B)











Given below (21 to 30) consists of the paired statement, statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:











(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.











21. Assertion (A): The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis in a community is tuberculin test.





Reason (R): Once a person has tuberculin test positive he will always be positive.





Answer: (A)











22. Assertion (A): Mode of transmission of Hepatitis C is blood borne.





Reason (R): There are many subclinical infections in Hepatitis C.





Answer: (B)











23. Assertion (A): Annual Parasite Incidence (API) is used for planning anti-malaria operations.





Reason (R): Monthly number of slides examined should amount to at least one percent of the population.





Answer: (B)











24. Assertion (A): Leptospirosis is a disease caused by spiroches.





Reason (R): Vaccination is indicated for occupation groups such as sewage workers, slaughter house workers, dairy workers etc.





Answer: (B)











25. Assertion (A): Hydatid disease is an accidental dead end infection by Echinococcus granulosus eggs with unwashed vegetables, food and water contaminated with faeces ofinfected dog.





Reason (R): Mebendazole is of no use at all.





Answer: (C)











26. Assertion (A): The five cleans in safe motherhood are to be practised during delivery.





Reason (R): It is mainly aimed at reducing the chances of Purpural sepsis.





Answer: (A)











27. Assertion (A): Direct standardization applies to the age distribution of standard population to the age specific death rate.





Reason (R): It removes bias due to age distribution.





Answer: (A)











28. Assertion (A): There is no evidence that yellow fever has ever been present in India.





Reason (R): The vector Aedes Aegypti is not commonly found in India





Answer: (C)











29. Assertion (A): India is one of the highly disaster prone countries.





Reason (R): Topographic and climatic conditions in India favour occurrence of disasters





Answer: (A)











30. Assertion (A): Sexual cycle of malaria parasite takes place inhuman beings.





Reason (R): The human cycle begins when an infected mosquito bites a person and injects sporozoites.





Answer: (D)











31. Arrange the following vaccines in chronological order as they appeared in India:





(A) Human papilloma virus vaccine, Nasal spray flu vaccine, Rotavirus vaccine, H1N1 vaccine





(B) Human papilloma virus vaccine, Rotavirus vaccine, Nasal spray flu vaccine, H1N1 vaccine





(C) Rotavirus vaccine, Human papilloma virus vaccine, H1N1vaccine, Nasal spray fluvaccine.





(D) Nasal spray flu vaccine, Human papilloma virus vaccine, Rota-virus vaccine, H1N1 vaccine





Answer: (A)











32. Arrange the countries in the order in which incidence of poliomyelitis was reported during 2009-2010 going from highest to lowest





(A) Afghanistan, Nigeria, Pakistan, India





(B) Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, Nigeria





(C) Nigeria, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India





(D) India, Nigeria, Pakistan, Afghanistan





Answer: (D)











33. Arrange the deaths due to dengue fever in the year 2009 in an ascending order in the different states of India:





(A) West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Kerala





(B) Kerala, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh





(C) West Bengal, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra





(D) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal





Answer: (C)











34. Arrange in descending order the DALYS lost due to cancer according to type of cancer worldwide in 2004





(A) Pancreas, Stomach, Prostate, Skin melanoma





(B) Prostate, Pancreas, Stomach, skin melanoma





(C) Skin melanoma, Pancreas, Prostate, Stomach





(D) Stomach, Prostate, skin melanoma, Pancreas





Answer: (A)











35. Arrange in descending order under 5mortality rates in selected countries in 2007:





(A) India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka





(B) Pakistan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka





(C) Nepal, Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka





(D) Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Nepal, India





Answer: (B)











36. Arrange the following preventive strategies in appropriate order:





(A) Health promotion, early diagnosis & treatment, specific protection, Disability limitation and Rehabilitation





(B) Early diagnosis & treatment, specific protection, Disability limitation, Rehabilitation,





Health promotion





(C) Specific protection, Health promotion, early diagnosis and treatment, Disability limitation and Rehabilitation.





(D) Health promotion, Specific Protection, Early diagnosis and treatment, Disability limitation and Rehabilitation





Answer: (D)











37. Arrange the developmental milestones of an under 5 in an ascending order





(A) Crawling, Head holding, Sitting without support, walking





(B) Head holding, crawling, sitting without support, walking





(C) Head holding, sitting without support, crawling, walking





(D) Crawling, sitting without support, Head holding, walking





Answer: (C)











38. Arrange the key indicators of NFHS III (2005-06) in descending order of magnitude





(A) Consumption of IFA tablets for90 days, three or more antenatal visit, safe deliveries, and post natal check-up within 2 days.





(B) Three or more antenatal visits, safe deliveries, Post natal check-up within 2 days, consumption of IFA tablets for 90 days.





(C) Three or more antenatal visits, consumption of IFA tablets for90 days, safe deliveries, Postnatal check-up within 2 days





(D) Safe deliveries, three or more antenatal visits, post natal check-up within 2 days, consumption of IFA tablets for 90 days.





Answer: (B)











39. Arrange in ascending order milk from various sources in terms of protein content





(A) Human, Cow, Buffalo, Goat





(B) Goat, Human, Cow, Buffalo





(C) Cow, Human, Goat, Buffalo





(D) Human, Cow, Goat, Buffalo





Answer: (D)











40. Arrange the states in ascending order of female literacy (2001)





(A) Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal





(B) Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra





(C) Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra





(D) Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra





Answer: (D)











41. Match List – I with List – II:





List – I                                                                                    List – II





(National Programme)                                     (Year of Launching)





(a) Pulse Polio Immunization programme                   (i) 1974





(b) National Rural Health Mission programme           (ii) 1995





(c) National AIDS control programme                       (iii) 2005





(d) Expanded programme of immunization                (iv) 1987





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)





(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





Answer: (A)











42. List – I                                                                  List – II





(Child Health Components)                                        (Activities)





(a) Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs)              (i) Integration of facility based care package with IMNCs package





(b) Pre service IMNCI                                                (ii) In patient management of severely malnourished children.





(c) Facility based IMNCI (FIMNCI)                         (iii) Sick children are screened and detected at periphery through IMNCI





(d) Sick New-born Care Units (SNCU)                     (iv) Providing, trained IMNCI manpower in public and private sector





Codes:





      (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





Answer: (C)











43. List – I                              List – II





(Age)                                       (Socio personal development)





(a) 24 months                          (i) recognises mother





(b) 9 – 10 months                    (ii) Suspicious of strangers





(c) 6 – 8 months                      (iii) enjoys hide and seek





(d) 4 – 5 months                      (iv) dry by day





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)





(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answer: (D)











44. List – I                                                                  List – II





(MCH goals)                                                   (Current level of achievement)





(a) Total fertility rate                                                   (i) 46.5





(b) Couple protection rate                                           (ii) 83.4





(c) Maternal mortality rate1, 00,000 live births          (iii) 2.6





(d) T. T. Immunization of pregnant women               (iv) 254





Codes:





      (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)





(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)





(D) (ii) (i) (ii) (iv)





Answer: (C)











45. List – I                                                                  List – II





(Type of Data)                                                                        (Tests of significance)





(a) n = < 30 in each group two groups, qualitative     (i) standard error of difference between two means





(b) n = < 30 in each group two groups, quantitative   (ii) standard error of difference between two proportions





(c) n > 100 in each group two groups, qualitative      (iii) ‘t’ test





(d) n > 100 each group two groups, Quantitative       (iv) ‘X2’ test





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)





(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)





Answer: (B)











46. List – I                              List – II





(Traits)                                     (Condition)





(a) Autosomal Dominant        (i) Colour blindness





(b) Autosomal Recessive        (ii) Vitamin D resistant rickets





(c) Recessive sex linked          (iii) ABO blood group





(d) Dominant sex linked         (iv) Cystic fibrosis





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)





(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)





(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





Answer: (A)











47. List – I                              List – II





(Instruments)                           (Measurements)





(a) Fortin Barometer               (i) Relative humidity





(b) Sling psychrometer            (ii) Cooling capacity





(c) Wet globe thermometer     (iii) Air temperature





(d) Dry bulb thermometer       (iv) Atmospheric pressure





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)





(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)





(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)





Answer: (B)











48. List – I                                          List – II





(International organization)                (Priority Area)





(a) Indian Red Cross Society              (i) prevention and control of specific diseases





(b) World Health Organization           (ii) To increase the efficiency of farming, forestry and fisheries





(c) UNICEF                                        (iii) First aid &Blood bank





(d) FAO                                              (iv) Aid for production of vaccines &Sera





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)





(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)





(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





Answer: (C)











49. List – I                              List – II





(Disease)                                 (Incubation period)





(a) Staphylococcal food          (i) 10 days





(b) Measles                              (ii) 2 to 6 days





(c) Diphtheria                          (iii) 18 to 72 hours





(d) Influenza                           (iv) 1 to 6 hours





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)





(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)





(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answer: (C)











50. List – I                              List – II





(Disease)                                 (Vector)





(a) Malaria                               (i) Mansonoidse





(b) Japnese encephalitis           (ii) Anopheles





(c) Dengue                              (iii) Culex





(d) Malayran Filariasis            (iv) Aedes





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)





(B) (iii) (ii) (iii) (i)





(C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





Answer: (D)


Related Posts

Post a Comment

Labels

General Knowledge 902 General Studies 719 Central Govt. Job 308 General Tamil 177 Mock Test 133 PAPER - I 120 Civics 101 Indian Constitutions 91 Library Science Quiz 80 Anna University Jobs 72 Library and Information Science Paper II 71 Librarian Jobs 69 Computer Science Quiz 64 History Quiz 59 General English 56 NEET 2017 Model Questions 53 Geography 45 Library and Information Science 35 Computer Science 34 Computer Science PAPER - III 32 History Paper II 32 6th Tamil 30 Computer Science PAPER - II 22 Library and Information Science Paper III 19 PAPER - II 18 10th Science 17 General Science Mock Test 17 Life Science Quiz 17 6th Standard Science 16 9th Science 14 Nobel Awards 14 CBSC NET 13 History Mock Test 13 PAPER - III 13 Medical Physicist 12 Economics Paper II 10 8th Science 9 7th Tamil 8 Commerce Paper-2 8 Economics Paper III 8 History Paper III 8 NCERT Text Book 8 General Tamil Quiz 7 Home Science Paper II 7 Labour Welfare Paper III 7 8th Tamil 6 Anthropology Paper II 6 Anthropology Paper III 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III 6 Archaeology Paper II 6 Archaeology Paper III 6 Comparative Literature Paper II 6 Comparative Literature Paper III 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper II 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper III 6 Criminology Paper II 6 Criminology Paper III 6 Education Paper - II 6 Education Paper - III 6 English Paper - II 6 English Paper - III 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - II 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - III 6 Forensic Science Paper II 6 Forensic Science Paper III 6 Geography Paper II 6 Geography Paper III 6 Home Science Paper III 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper II 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper III 6 Indian Culture Paper - II 6 Indian Culture Paper - III 6 International and Area Studies Paper II 6 International and Area Studies Paper III 6 Labour Welfare Paper II 6 Law Paper - II 6 Law Paper - III 6 Management Paper - II 6 Management Paper - III 6 Mass Communication Paper II 6 Mass Communication Paper III 6 Museology and Conservation Paper II 6 Museology and Conservation Paper III 6 Music Paper II 6 Music Paper III 6 Performing Arts Paper II 6 Performing Arts Paper III 6 Philosophy Paper II 6 Philosophy Paper III 6 Physical Education Paper - II 6 Physical Education Paper - III 6 10th Tamil 5 Commerce Paper-3 5 Folk Literature Paper II 5 Folk Literature Paper III 5 Geography Mock Test 5 Linguistics Paper II 5 Linguistics Paper III 5 7th Science 4 9th Tamil 4 Chemistry 4 Geography Quiz 4 11th Tamil 3 6th Standard History 3 7th Tamil Mock Test 3 9th standard Tamil Quiz 3 CSIR-NET - Chemistry 3 Computer Science Video 2 Mathematics Paper II 2 CSIR-NET - Physics 1 Civil Engineer Mock Test 1 Computer Science Paper II 1 General Knowledge Mock Test 1 Geology 1 Interview Questions 1 January Current Affairs - 2016 1 LIS Questions 1 Library Science Paper II 1 Life Science 1 Life Science Paper II 1 Mathematics Quiz 1
Subscribe Our Posting