Social Medicine and Community Health 2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper II
1. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water per litre in India is
(A) < 0.5 mg
(B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg
(C) > 0.8 to < 1.2 mg
(D) > 1.2 mg
Answer: (B)
2. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential?
(A) Leucin
(B) Isoleucine
(C) Lysine
(D) Glycine
Answer: (D)
3. The most invasive and virulent species of Brucella Micro-organism is
(A) B. Melitensis
(B) B. Abortus
(C) B. Suis
(D) B. Canis
Answer: (A)
4. All of the following diseases require surveillance according to WHO except:
(A) Chicken-pox
(B) Yellow fever
(C) Malaria
(D) Rabies
Answer: (A)
5. Salk vaccine is a
(A) Live vaccine
(B) Live attenuated vaccine
(C) Killed vaccine
(D) Toxoid
Answer: (C)
6. The most widely used strain of rubella virus for vaccine production is
(A) HPV/77
(B) Japanese To 336
(C) RA 27/3
(D) Cendehill virus
Answer: (C)
7. All of the following are reasons for rapid spread of influenza except:
(A) Short incubation period
(B) Large number of subclinical cases
(C) Presence of cross immunity
(D) Short duration of immunity
Answer: (C)
8. Which of the following characteristics are true for a ‘Case Control Study’?
(A) Both exposure and outcome have occurred before start of a study.
(B) It cannot test causal hypothesis.
(C) Relative risk can be calculated.
(D) A long period of follow up is required.
Answer: (A)
9. The area is aid to be hyper endemic if spleen rate exceeds
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%
Answer: (C)
10. The denominator for ‘General Fertility Rate’ is
(A) Mid-year population
(B) Mid-year population of 15-45 years
(C) Mid-year population of all women
(D) Mid-year population of 15-45 year age group married women
Answer: (B)
11. All are true of cohort study except
(A) Both groups are free of disease.
(B) The study proceeds from cause to effect.
(C) It is an observational study.
(D) Relative risk cannot be computed.
Answer: (D)
12. The radiation exposure in mammography is
(A) 0.3 rads
(B) 1 rad
(C) 5 rads
(D) 10 rads
Answer: (A)
Questions 13 to 20 are of multiple selection type.
13. The components of validity of screening tests are
I. Sensitivity
II. Specificity
III. Positive Predictive Value
IV. Negative Predictive Value
(A) I, II and III correct
(B) I and II correct
(C) I, III and IV correct
(D) I and IV correct
Answer: (B)
14. Which of the following viral hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination?
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C
IV. Hepatitis E
(A) I & II correct
(B) I, II & III correct
(C) I & III correct
(D) II, III & IV correct
Answer: (A)
15. Reduced osmalarity ORS recommended by WHO and UNICEF have following ingredients:
I. Sodium Chloride
II. Soda bicarob
III. Potassium Chloride
IV. Trisodium citrate dihydrate
(A) I, II, & III correct
(B) II & III correct
(C) I, II & IV correct
(D) I, III & IV correct
Answer: (D)
16. Gastro-intestinal symptoms are very prominent in the following types of bacterial food poisoning:
I. Salmonella typhimurium
II. Staphylococcus aurius
III. Clostridium botulinum
IV. Clostridium perfingens
(A) I, II, & III correct
(B) I, II & IV correct
(C) III & IV correct
(D) II, III & IV correct
Answer: (B)
17. W. ban crofti is transmitted to man by the bites of the following mosquitoes:
I. Anopheles
II. Culex
III. Aedes
IV. Mansonia
(A) I, II, & III correct
(B) I & II correct
(C) II & III correct
(D) II, III & IV correct
Answer: (A)
18. In India rabies does not occur in the following territories:
I. Kerala
II. Tamilnadu
III. Lakshadweep Islands
IV. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(A) I & III correct
(B) I & II correct
(C) I, III & IV correct
(D) III & IV correct
Answer: (D)
19. Following is true about the recommended additional daily allowance for the pregnant women
I. Calories – 300 K cal
II. Proteins – 15 gm
III. Vitamin A – 750 µg
IV. Calcium – 600 mg
(A) I, II, & IV correct
(B) I, II & III correct
(C) II & III correct
(D) I & II correct
Answer: (A)
20. Following Arboviral diseases are highly prevalent in India.
I. Dengue
II. Japanese Encephelitis
III. Chikungunya
IV. Yellow Fever
(A) I, II, & IV correct
(B) I, II & III correct
(C) I & III correct
(D) I & II correct
Answer: (B)
Give below (21 to 30) consists of the two paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason).
Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
21. (A) Adolescents are less vulnerable to disease than the very young and very old.
(R) Little prominence is given to health problems specific to their age.
Answer: (B)
22. (A) Absentism is a useful index in industry.
(R) The causes of sickness absentismare entirely due to sickness.
Answer: (C)
23. (A) The problems affecting the health of mothers and child are multifactorial.
(R) Mothers and children constitute a large vulnerable group.
Answer: (B)
24. (A) crucial elements in primary prevention is early diagnosis and prompt treatment.
(R) Oral cancer is amenable to primary prevention.
Answer: (D)
25. (A) Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.
(R) Triage should be adapted to locally available skills.
Answer: (B)
26. (A) Matching is a process by which controls are selected in such a way that they are similar to cases with regard to certain variables which are known to influence the outcome of disease.
(R) Matching is liable to distort or confound the results.
Answer: (C)
27. (A) Food fortification is a public health measure for prevention of nutritional deficiency disorders.
(R) It is a process whereby nutrients are added to food to maintain and improve the quality of diet of a group of people.
Answer: (A)
28. (A) Vasectomy has the highest cost benefit as compared to tubectomy.
(R) Therefore it is readily accepted by the population.
Answer: (C)
29. (A) Congenital anomaly is the most common cause of neonatal mortality in India.
(R) According to WHO congenital anomaly includes all biochemical, structural and functional disorders present at birth.
Answer: (D)
30. (A) SRS (2003) estimates are 7.2% of total population to be above the age of 60 years.
(R) This low proportion of geriatric population is due to failure of increase in life expectancy of Indian population.
Answer: (C)
31. Identify correct ascending order of retinol equivalents of commonly consumed food stuffs.
(A) Milk, Carrots, Eggs, Green Leaves
(B) Carrot, Eggs, Milk, Green Leaves
(C) Milk, Eggs, Green Leaves, Carrots
(D) Green Leaves, Eggs, Milk, Carrots
Answer: (C)
32. Identify correct descending order of Vitamin C content of commonly consumed Indian food stuffs
(A) Orange, Lime, Amla, Guava
(B) Lime, Amla, Guava, Orange
(C) Amla, Guava, Lime, Orange
(D) Guava, Amla, Lime, Orange
Answer: (C)
33. Identify the correct chronological order of the commencement of the following National Health Programmes
(A) National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme.
(B) National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme
(C) National Malaria Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Blindness Control programme, National Mental Health Programme
(D) National Tuberculosis Control Programe, National Blindness Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme
Answer: (C)
34. Identify correct chronological order of committees for Health Planning
(A) Chadah Committee, Mukerji Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee
(B) Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee
(C) Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Shrivastav Commmittee
(D) Shrivastav Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee
Answer: (A)
35. Identify correct chronological order of invention of vaccines:
(A) Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza
(B) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza
(C) Rotavix, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, H1N1 influenza
(D) Rotavix, Hepatitis B, H1N1Influenza, Hepatitis A,
Answer: (B)
36. Identify descending order of incidence of low birth weight babies in the following countries:
(A) Pakistan, China, India, U.S.A.
(B) Pakistan, India, U.S.A., China
(C) India, Pakistan, China, U.S.A.
(D) India, Pakistan, U.S.A., China
Answer: (D)
37. Identify the child survival rate among the following countries from lowest to highest:
(A) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, India
(B) Pakistan, Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka
Answer: (C)
38. Identify the ‘Total Neonatal Mortality Rate’ of the following states in India (2006) from highest to lowest:
(A) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Tamil Nadu
(B) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Haryana
(C) Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A)
39. Identify percentage distribution of causes of ‘Maternal Deaths’ (2001-2003) from highest to lowest
(A) Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Obstructed Labour
(B) Obstructed Labour, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Sepsis
(C) Haemorrhage, Sepsis, Abortion, Obstructed Labour
(D) Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Obstructed Labour, Abortion
Answer: (C)
40. Identify the sitewise incidence of cancer in India among females from highest to lowest
(A) Cervix, Breast, Oesophagus, Mouth and Pharynx
(B) Breast, Cervix, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus
(C) Cervix, Breast, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus
(D) Breast, Cervix, Oesophagus Mouth and Pharynx,
Answer: (D)
Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
41. List – I List – II
(Type of Vaccine) (Diseases)
(a) Live vaccine (i) Pertussis
(b) Killed vaccine (ii) B.C.G.
(c) Inactivated vaccine (iii) Diphtheria
(d) Toxoid (iv) Rabies
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (D)
42. List – I List – II
(Vaccinses) (Routes)
(a) Measles (i) Oral
(b) BCG (ii) Subcutaneous
(c) DPT (iii) Intradermal
(d) OPV (iv) Intramuscular
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (D)
43. List – I List – II
(Places) (Population)
(a) Anganwadi (i) 1,00,000
(b) Rural subcentre (ii) 1,000
(c) Primary Health Centre (iii) 5,000
(d) Community Health centre (iv) 30,000
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)
44. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Methods of control)
(a) AIDS (i) Immunization
(b) Yaws (ii) Chemotheraphy
(c) Typhoid Fever (iii) Use of Condom
(d) Tetanus (iv) Sanitation
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)
45. List – I List – II
(Breeding Places) (Vector)
(a) Stagnant water (i) Anopheles
(b) Clear running water (ii) Calex
(c) Water in cans (iii) Mansonia
(d) Water weeds (iv) Ades
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (B)
46. List – I List – II
(Level of Prevention) (Strategy)
(a) Health promotion (i) Immunization
(b) Specific protection (ii) Blind School
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment (iii) Nutrition Education
(d) Rehabilitation (iv) Case finding
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (A)
47. List – I List – II
(Recommended maximum limit of) (Concentration)
(a) Lead (i) 1.5 mg / litre
(b) Fluoride (ii) 0.01 mg / litre
(c) Mercury (iii) 50 mg / litre
(d) Nitrate (iv) 0.001 mg / litre
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (A)
48. List – I List – II
(Diseases) (Antibiotic used in chemoprophylaxis)
(a) Cholera (i) Amantadine
(b) Bacterial conjunctivitis (ii) Tetracycline
(c) Meningococcal (iii) Erythromycin
(d) Meningities Influenza (iv) Sulphadiazine
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
49. List – I List – II
(Nutrient) (Rich sources)
(a) Iron (i) Amla
(b) Calcium (ii) Groundnuts
(c) Vitamin C (iii) Ragi
(d) Niacin (iv) Green leafy vegetables
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: (D)
50. List – I List – II
(Types of Dust) (Pneumoconiosis)
(a) Coal (i) Bagassosis
(b) Cotton fibre (ii) Farmer’s Lung
(c) Grain (iii) Anthracosis
(d) Sugar cane (iv) Byssinosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (A)
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