-->

Labour Welfare 2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper III



Labour Welfare 2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper III





1. Match the following:





List-I                                                   List-II





(a) F. J. Roethlisberger & Dickson      (i) New Patterns of Management





(b) Elton Mayo                                    (ii) The Human side of enterprise





(c) Douglas McGregor                        (iii) The Management and Worker





(d) Rensis Likert                                 (iv) The human problems of industrial civilization





Codes:





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)





(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)





(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)





(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)





Answer: (B)











2. Who is associated with the ‘illumination experiment’ of the Hawthorne Experiment?





(A) Elton Mayo





(B) George A. Pennock





(C) F. J. Roethlisberger





(D) None of the above





Answer: (B)











3. The paper “Engineer as an Economist”, which influence F. W. Taylor to develop his Scientific Management Principles was authored by





(A) Charles A. Babbage





(B) Henry Gnatt





(C) Henry R. Towne





(D) Louis D. Brandies





Answer: (C)











4. The systematic process of making job valuation determinations about a job based upon its content and the way is which it actually functions within the organization is called:





(A) Job Determination





(B) Job Analysis





(C) Job Evaluation





(D) Job Grading





Answer: (C)











5. Sensitivity training is also known as:





(A) X- group training





(B) Y – group training





(C) T – group training





(D) Core group training





Answer: (C)











6. In which public sector organization quality circles was first introduced in India.





(A) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.





(B) Bharath Earth Movers Ltd.





(C) Bharath Heavy Electricals Ltd.





(D) Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd.





Answer: (C)











7. Which are not the characteristics of grievances?





(A) Factual





(B) Fabricated





(C) Disguised





(D) Imaginary





Answer: (B)











8. Match the following:





Enactment                                                                   Year





(a) Industrial employment Standing orders Act         (i) 1948





(b) Industrial Disputes Act                                         (ii) 1926





(c) Factories Act                                                         (iii) 1947





(d) Trade Unions Act                                                  (iv) 1946





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)





(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)





(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)





(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)





Answer: (D)











9. List of unfair labour practices on the part of the trade unions and employers was included in





(A) Factories Act





(B) Industrial Dispute Act





(C) Trade union Act





(D) None of the above





Answer: (B)











10. Not more than 50% of members of the office bears of Trade union can be outsiders, as per provisions of legislations.





(A) Industrial Dispute Act





(B) Trade Union Act





(C) Mines Act





(D) ESI Act





Answer: (B)









11. Who coined the term Scientific Management?





(A) Louis D. Brandies





(B) F. W. Taylor





(C) Douglas McGregor





(D) None of the above





Answer: (B)











12. Who propagated the quality of work life as a descending participation mechanism?





(A) Frederick Herzberg





(B) Eric Tryst





(C) A. K. Rice





(D) John T. Dunlop





Answer: (B)











13. Statutory Minimum wage is fixed under





(A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936





(B) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976





(C) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923





(D) Minimum Wages Act, 1948





Answer: (D)











14. The employee State Insurance Act was enacted the basis of which committee’s report?





(A) B. R. Ambedkar Committee





(B) B. P. Adarkar Committee





(C) Royal Commission on Labour





(D) Labour Investigation Committee





Answer: (B)











15. Who is the author of the book “Fifth Discipline the Art and Practice of the Learning Organization”?





(A) Peter Clark





(B) Peter Segne





(C) Peter F. Drucker





(D) Tom Peters





Answer: (B)











16. Who has advanced the single loop and double loop learning models?





(A) Albert Bandura





(B) Robert Blake





(C) Robert Katz





(D) Chris Argyris





Answer: (D)











17. “Creating jobs, guaranteeing rights at work, extending social protection and promoting social dialogue” are contents of which of the following programmes of ILO?





(A) Human Rights





(B) Decent Work





(C) International Programme on the Elimination of Child Labour





(D) INDUS Child Labour Project





Answer: (B)











18. In which company ‘Six Sigma’ was first experimented?





(A) Toyota





(B) Motorola





(C) Sony





(D) Ford





Answer: (B)











19. The philosophy of ‘never-ending improvement’ in total quality management is called





(A) Kanaban





(B) Business Process Re-engineering





(C) Benchmarking





(D) Kaizan





Answer: (D)











20. Who has given the ‘Balance Score Card’ as a measurement based performance management strategy?





(A) Robert S. Kaplan and David P. Norton





(B) Hammel and Prahallad





(C) Stablein and Nord





(D) Pascale and Athos





Answer: (A)









21. Who had advanced the ‘Business Process Reengineering’ concept?





(A) K. Pang and N. Oliver





(B) R. Stablein and W. Nord





(C) Micheal Hammer and James Champy





(D) M. Mandenhall and U. Oddon





Answer: (C)











22. Which of the following statements is not true about the five disciplines identified by Peter Senge?





(A) Personal Mastery in the first discipline





(B) Mental models is not included in the five disciplines





(C) Building shared vision is a part of the five disciplines





(D) System thinking is the last discipline





Answer: (B)











23. Who has started that “Collective bargaining is essentially a process in which employees act as a group in seeking to shape conditions and relationships in their employment.





(A) R. F. Hoxie





(B) L. G. Reynolds





(C) Dale Yoder





(D) J. F. Richardson





Answer: (C)











24. In which year the formation of the National Renewal Fund to protect the interest of the workers was announced:





(A) 1956





(B) 1991





(C) 1969





(D) 1992





Answer: (B)











25. Identify the factors which do not help organisation in dealing with knowledge management





(A) Improve the returns





(B) Improve competency





(C) Do not exploit opportunity





(D) Great value for core business





Answer: (C)











26. Who are not the actors according to Dunlop’s framework of industrial relations system?





(A) Managers and their representatives





(B) Workers and their organisations





(C) Specialized government agencies





(D) Communities and their associations





Answer: (D)











27. According to whom ‘Conflict is necessary but it can be and needs to be managed and resolved’.





(A) Unitarists





(B) Pluralists





(C) Classicalists





(D) Modernists





Answer: (A)











28. Who observed that the respect for rules depends on the manner of their formulation?





(A) Web, S. and Web, B.





(B) Flanders, A.





(C) Durkheim, E.





(D) Gouldner, A.





Answer: (C)











29. The concept/theory of industrial capitalism/dialectical materialism was developed by:





(A) Karl Marx





(B) Mahatma Gandhi





(C) Dunlop J. T.





(D) Thakur C. P.





Answer: (A)











30. Benefits (India) of globalization like sustained economic growth, free markets, economic globalization, privatisation etc., were summarized by:





(A) First National Commission on Labour





(B) Second National Commission on Labour





(C) National Labour Board





(D) International Labour Organisation





Answer: (B)











31. Globalization is ruthless, rootless, jobless, fruitless was stated by:





(A) U. N. O





(B) U. N. D. P





(C) I. L. O





(D) W. H. O





Answer: (B)











32. The Origin, growth and development of employment’s organizations in India can be identified as:





(A) Before 1933





(B) After 1933





(C) Before 1947





(D) After 1947





Answer: (A)











33. The International Organization of Employer’s (I.O.E) with headquarters in Genevas was formulated in





(A) 1910





(B) 1920





(C) 1930





(D) 1940





Answer: (B)











34. Trade Union movement in India emerged between





(A) 1920-1930





(B) 1850-1870





(C) 1870-1880





(D) 1930-1947





Answer: (A)











35. The code of discipline in industry was adopted by the Indian labourconference (tripantite) in





(A) 1948





(B) 1958





(C) 1968





(D) 1950





Answer: (B)











36. The constitution of India upholds the principle ‘Freedom of Association’ as a fundamental right enunciated by I. L. O. convention in





(A) Article 20(C)





(B) Article 19(C)





(C) Article 24(C)





(D) Article 18(C)





Answer: (B)











37. Training refers to





(A) An act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job





(B) A short term educational process and utilizing systematic and organized procedure by which employees learn technical knowledge and skills for a definite purpose.





(C) It bridges the differences between job requirements and employee’s present specifications





(D) All of the above





Answer: (D)











38. Which of the following is not an objective of sensitivity training?





(A) Awareness of behavioural pattern of oneself and others





(B) Increased openness and greater concern for others





(C) Increased tolerance and less ethnic prejudice





(D) Potentialities for the next level job





Answer: (D)











39. Match the following with List-A to List-B





List-A                                      List-B





(a) Job Rotation                      (i) the trainer appraises the performance of the trainee, provides feedback information and corrects the trainee





(b) Job Instruction                   (ii) the movement of the trainee from one job to another





(c) Vestible training                (iii) Simulation of actual work Conditions in a class room





(d) Programmed Instruction   (iv) The subject matter to be learned is presented in a services of carefully planned sequential units.





       (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)





(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)





(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)





Answer: (B)











40. Off the job training does not include:





(A) Role playing





(B) Lecture method





(C) Coaching





(D) Conference or discussion





Answer: (C)











41. Arrange the following steps of training procedure in proper sequence





a. Preparing the trainee





b. Preparing the instructor





c. Presenting the operation





d. Getting ready to teach





e. Tryout the trainee’s performance





f. Follow up





(A) a, b, c, d, e, f





(B) b, a, d, c, e, f





(C) f, e, d, c, a, b





(D) a, d, c, e, b, f





Answer: (B)











42. Which of the following is not correct about Organisation Development?





(A) It is not a top management led and supported process.





(B) It is a process of planned change.





(C) It is an ongoing collaborative management of organization culture





(D) It is a problem solving process.





Answer: (A)











43. Who has given the concept of OCTAPACE culture?





(A) Dharni P. Sinha





(B) T. V. Rao





(C) D. M. Pestonjee





(D) Udai Pareek





Answer: (D)











44. The components of Marvin Weisbord’s six box model are





(A) Purposes, structure, rewards, mechanisms, relationships and leadership





(B) Processes, structure, resources, mechanisms, relationships and leadership





(C) Performance, structure, rewards, machines, relationships and leadership





(D) Purposes, structure, resources, machines, relationships and leadership





Answer: (A)











45. Action research, as a methodology for behavioural science was proposed by





(A) Wendell L. French





(B) P. F. Drucker





(C) Kurt Lewin





(D) Reddin





Answer: (C)











46. The process of comparing work and service methods against the best practices and outcomes in industry is known as





(A) Benchmarking





(B) Kaizens





(C) Quality Circles





(D) None of the above





Answer: (A)











47. In a learning organisation





(A) Vision is provided by top management





(B) Conflicts are resolved through power and hierarchical influence





(C) Formulation and implementation of ideas takes place at all levels of organisation





(D) All the above





Answer: (C)











48. When an organization outsources the responsibilities for the end-to-end delivery of the recruitment/selection process covering all vacancies is





(A) Recruitment process and screening





(B) Business process and screening





(C) Knowledge process and screening





(D) All the above





Answer: (D)











49. Lean production aims at:





(A) Continuous improvement





(B) Aim at zero defects





(C) Just-in-time inventory system





(D) All of the above





Answer: (D)











50. Which one of the following is not a decision role identified by Henry Mintzberg





(A) The spokesperson role





(B) The Entrepreneurial role





(C) The Disturbance handler role





(D) The Resource allocator role





Answer: (A)











51. Which one is not of Michael Porters five force model of industry analysis?





(A) Threat of new entrants





(B) Substitutes





(C) Intensity of rivalry among existing players





(D) Cost leadership





Answer: (D)











52. Which one is not a part of McKinsy’s 7‘s’ framework?





(A) Systems





(B) Strategy





(C) Standards





(D) Style





Answer: (C)











53. The change in specialization and integration in organization context is called:





(A) Co-ordination





(B) Co-operation





(C) Organizational restructuring





(D) Feedback





Answer: (C)











54. Which one is a part of performance measurement?





(A) Trait





(B) Behaviour





(C) Outcome





(D) All the above





Answer: (D)











55. Which of the following is a single use plan?





(A) Budget





(B) Rule





(C) Procedure





(D) Policy





Answer: (A)











56. The basic role of policy is





(A) To provide guidelines for action





(B) To set procedures





(C) To give direction for motivation





(D) To prescribe methods





Answer: (A)











57. Grievance Handing Machinery is given in





(A) Industrial Disputes Act





(B) Factories Act





(C) Both (A) and (B)





(D) None of the above





Answer: (A)











58. Who has given the ‘expectancy theory’ of Motivation?





(A) Abraham Maslow





(B) Victor Vroom





(C) Frederick Herzberg





(D) Clayton Adler





Answer: (B)











59. The categories of human process, techno structural, human resources management and strategic applications are related to:





(A) Change management





(B) O. D. application





(C) Training





(D) Action research





Answer: (B)











60. The constitution of site appraisal committees is under the:





(A) Factories Act, 1948





(B) Contract labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970





(C) Maternity Benefit Act, 1965





(D) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948





Answer: (A)











61. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 the appropriate government shall fix the minimum rates of wages payable to the employees employed in an employment specified in





(A) Schedule I part I





(B) Schedule I part II





(C) Schedule I, Part I, II and the employments and added under section 27





(D) Schedule I and II





Answer: (C)











62. Under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 remuneration means





(A) Basic wage only





(B) Basic wage and dearness allowance





(C) Basic wage and emoluments what so ever payable





(D) None of the above





Answer: (C)











63. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the maximum limit on deductions should not ordinarily cross





(A) 50 percent generally and 65 percent in case of payments due to the cooperatives





(B) 60 percent generally and 75 percent in case of payments due to the cooperatives





(C) 50 percent generally and 75 percent in case of payments due to the cooperatives





(D) 40 percent generally and 75 percent in case of payments due to the cooperatives





Answer: (C)











64. Draft standing orders are to be submitted within





(A) Two years from the date on which the Act is applicable in five copies.





(B) One year from the date on which the Act is applicable in five copies





(C) Six months from the date on which the Act is applicable in five copies





(D) Six months from the date on which the act is applicable in ten copies





Answer: (C)











65. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 the maximum gratuity payable is





(A) Rs. 10 lakhs





(B) Rs. 8 lakhs





(C) Rs. 5 lakhs





(D) Rs. 3.5 lakhs





Answer: (A)











66. To avoid overcrowding the space provided for each worker under the Factories Act, 1948 is





(A) 12 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2cubic meters for those built after 1948





(B) 10 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2 cubic meters for those built after 1948





(C) 9.9 cubic metres for factories built before 1948 and 14.2 cubic meters for those built after 1948





(D) 9.9 cubic meters for factories built before 1948 and 14.4 cubic meters for those built after 1948.





Answer: (C)











67. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?





(A) Employee who is minor





(B) Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution





(C) Minor employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution





(D) None of the above





Answer: (B)











68. ‘Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in





(A) Employee State Insurance Act, 1948





(B) Unorganized Sector Workers Social Security Act, 2005





(C) Factories Act, 1948





(D) None of the above





Answer: (A)











69. Trade union means any combination formed primarily for the purpose of regulating the relations between





(A) Workmen and employers permanently





(B) Workmen and workmen permanently





(C) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers and employers temporary or permanent





(D) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers and employers permanently





Answer: (C)











70. Under the Factories Act, 1948 the working hours of 8 per day and 48 per week





(A) Include spread over.





(B) Are minimum working hours





(C) Include rest interval period.





(D) Do not include rest interval period.





Answer: (D)











71. Match the following schedules under the I. D. Act, 1947





(a) I schedule                          (i) conditions of service for change of which notice is to be given





(b) II and III schedules           (ii) Labour courts and Industrial Tribunals





(c) IV schedule                       (iii) Industries which may be declared as public utility services





(d) V schedule                        (iv) Unfair labour practices





        (a) (b) (c) (d)





(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)





(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)





(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)





(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)





Answer: (C)











72. In USA, the Labour Management Relations Act (Taft Hartley Act) was enacted in:





(A) 1937





(B) 1947





(C) 1957





(D) 1967





Answer: (B)











73. Recognition of the trade union in industry under the code of discipline was developed in the year





(A) 1952





(B) 1957





(C) 1958





(D) 1962





Answer: (B)











74. Who considered collective bargaining as the most important concept for determining the terms and conditions of employment





(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb





(B) Robert Hoxie





(C) John T. Dunlop





(D) Samuel Gompers





Answer: (D)











75. Where the recruitment happens through the compulsory intervention of trade unions, the system is called





(A) Closed shop





(B) Union shop





(C) Open shop





(D) None of the above





Answer: (A)


Related Posts

Post a Comment

Labels

Jobs Alert TNPSC General Knowledge Current Affairs General Studies Tamilnadu Jobs Group IV Dinamani News State Govt. Jobs. Central Govt. Job VAO Current Affairs - 2016 Group 2 General Tamil Current Affairs - 2020 UPSC Current Affairs Mock Test Assistant Group 1 Current Affairs - 2019 TET Current Affairs - 2018 Mock Test Librarian Vacancy Teaching SSC Current Affairs - 2017 PAPER - I TRB Civics History dinamalar News Admission Science Dinamalar Group 4 Indian Constitutions Dinamalar Group 2 Library Science Quiz RRB Officers Mathematics Library and Information Science Paper II Online Quiz Anna University Jobs Dinamani GT Computer Science Quiz Dinaethal TNPSC TNPSC Jobs History Quiz Librarian Jobs TNPSC Result Dinamalar TNPSC Group 2 A Model Questions General English Research Methodology NEET 2017 Model Questions Police Model Questions Free Coaching Class TNTET - Dinamalar Technician Dinakaran Group 4 Geography Current Affairs - 2015 TN Police Model Questions Current Affairs in English 6th Standard General News Answer Key Computer Science Library and Information Science Teaching Aptitude Managers Project Assistant 10th Standard Computer Science PAPER - III History Paper II RESULT 6th Tamil Results Dinathanthi News RRB Model Question Engineers Railway Jobs 9th Standard Clerk UGC NET Group 2 A Hall Ticket Computer Science PAPER - II Current Affairs - 2022 Current Affairs - June 2016 Research Assistant Driver Library and Information Science Paper III Office Assistant tnpsc group IV Aavin Jobs Economics Exam Tips PAPER - II 10th Science Bank Exam General Science Mock Test Life Science Quiz TN Aided School Jobs 6th Standard Science TNPSC Trics TNTET UGC-NET QUIZ Accountant Scientist Trainee Jobs 7th Standard 9th Science Dinamani Group 2 Nobel Awards Nurses CBSC NET History Mock Test PAPER - III Bank Jobs CSIR-NET Medical Physicist STATE GOVT. JOBS 8th Standard Political Science Mock Test Private Jobs Typist Current Affairs - May 2016 Economics Paper II Physics Political Science Paper II TNPSC Annual Planner +2 Result 8th Science INM NEET Online Model Test Security Stenographer commerce Quiz 7th Tamil Attendant Commerce Commerce Paper-2 Economics Paper III Free download History Paper III Indian National Movement NCERT Text Book Political Science Paper III Reasoning Solved Paper - I What Today Adult Education Paper II Adult Education Paper III General Tamil Quiz Home Science Paper II Kerala Jobs Labour Welfare Paper III Professional Assistant Psychology Paper II Sociology Paper - II Sociology Quiz TNPSC Group 2 A UGC NET Result 11th Standard 8th Tamil Anthropology Paper II Anthropology Paper III Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III Archaeology Paper II Archaeology Paper III Biology Civic Comparative Literature Paper II Comparative Literature Paper III Comparative Study of Religions Paper II Comparative Study of Religions Paper III Criminology Paper II Criminology Paper III Current Affairs - April 2016 Defence and Strategic Studies Paper II Defence and Strategic Studies Paper III Education Paper - II Education Paper - III English Paper - II English Paper - III Environmental Sciences Paper - II Environmental Sciences Paper - III Forensic Science Paper II Forensic Science Paper III Geography Paper II Geography Paper III Home Science Paper III Human Rights and Duties Paper II Human Rights and Duties Paper III ISRO Jobs Indian Culture Paper - II Indian Culture Paper - III International and Area Studies Paper II International and Area Studies Paper III Labour Welfare Paper II Law Paper - II Law Paper - III Management Paper - II Management Paper - III Mass Communication Paper II Mass Communication Paper III Museology and Conservation Paper II Museology and Conservation Paper III Music Paper II Music Paper III Performing Arts Paper II Performing Arts Paper III Philosophy Paper II Philosophy Paper III Physical Education Paper - II Physical Education Paper - III Police Political Science Quiz Politics Population Studies Paper II Population Studies Paper III Psychology Paper III Public Administration Paper - II Public Administration Paper - III Sociology Paper - III TNPSC Old Questions TNPSC Syllabus Tamilnadu Tourism Administration and Management Paper II Tourism Administration and Management Paper III UGC NET Exam News Visual Arts Paper II Visual Arts Paper III Women Studies Paper II Women Studies Paper III 10th Result 10th Tamil 12th Standard Administrator Anthropology Quiz Commerce Paper-3 Constable Current Affairs - March 2016 Current Affairs - November-2015 Current Affairs - September Current Affairs English January 2019 Folk Literature Paper II Folk Literature Paper III Geography Mock Test Inspector Librarian Private Jobs Linguistics Paper II Linguistics Paper III News Clipping TN TET TNPSC News Text Books Tribal and Regional Language Paper II 12th Result 7th Science 9th Tamil B.Ed Admission Chemistry Current Affairs - 2021 Current Affairs English Dinathanthi Group 4 Geography Quiz Group-I Jailor Model Questions Lab Assistant Model Questions NIOS - Political Science New Delhi Jobs Success Tips TNPSC Departmental Exam TRB Annual Planner Tribal and Regional Language Paper III tnpsc old questions mcq 11th Tamil 6th Standard History 7th Tamil Mock Test 9th standard Tamil Quiz CSIR-NET - Chemistry Current Affairs - 2023 Current Affairs - December-2015 Foreign Jobs Latest News Paper I Physics Paper II Question Bank TNPSC Cut-off Marks TNPSC Language Test Tamil Nadu GK Telangana Jobs VAO Exam Tricks 12th Revaluation Admission Military College CTET Coaching Class Computer Science Video Current Affairs - GK Video Current Affairs - January 2016 Dinamani Group 4 Model Questions Group 8 Karnataka Jobs Mathematics Paper II Model Test for PAPER - I NEET Exam October-2015 Paper II Pharmacist Police Constable Questions SSC Annual Planner SSLC Tamil Syllabus TN PSC Jobs TN Police Original Questions TNPSC - Synonyms TNPSC Question Bank TNPSC youtube Video TNSET Tamil Paper II The Hindu Group 4 Model Question UGC NET Exam UGC NET Syllabus Who's Who gk 10th Revaluation 8th Standard Tamil About NTA Andhra Pradesh Jobs Antonyms Assistant Jailor Exams Block Health Statistician CESE CMAT & GPAT CSIR-NET - Physics Civil Engineer Mock Test Computer Science Paper II Counselling Current Affairs - Augst 2016 Current Affairs - February 2016 Current Affairs - January 2019 Current Affairs January 2019 Dinamalar Group 4 2019 Disclaimer General Knowledge Mock Test Geology Group VIII Group-II ITI Jobs Interview Questions JEE Exam January Current Affairs - 2016 KVS Teaching LIS Questions Legal Jobs Library Science Paper II Life Science Life Science Paper II Match the following Words Mathematics Quiz Mode of UGC NET Exam NTA NET Exam Paper I November-2015 Online Test Political Science Politicsa Reasoning and Logical Reasoning Scholarship South India Govt. Jobs Statistician TN EB Assessor Exam Model Questions TNPSC EO Exam TNUSRB Questions TRB QUESTIONS Tamil UGC NET Exam Syllabus International and Area Studies UGC NET Exam Syllabus Paper I UGC NET Exam Women Studies Syllabus UGC NET Notifications UGC NET Syllabus for Computer Science Paper II UGC NET Syllabus for Criminology UGC NEt Answer Keys UGC-NET Exam Date UPSC Annual Planner UPSC Old Questions United Nations centr
Subscribe Our Posting