-->

Home Science 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper III








1. Anaemia caused by Vitamin B-12 deficiency is





(A) Megaloblastic





(B) Pernicious





(C) Sickle cell





(D) All the above





Answer: (B)











2. Test to assess PEM in children in early stages is by





(A) Biochemical tests





(B) Anthropometry





(C) Pathological tests





(D) None of the above





Answer: (B)











3. Isoelectric point at which maximum coagulation of milk protein takes place:





(A) 4.2 pH





(B) 4.6 pH





(C) 5.4 pH





(D) 6.6 pH





Answer: (B)











4. Workman’s compensation is paid to a worker.





(A) On retirement





(B) As appreciation of work done





(C) On attaining injury at work





(D) None of the above





Answer: (C)











5. Contingency Approach is a method of Management





(A) Where the departments are divided into subsystems.





(B) Where the inventory or stock governs the activities.





(C) Entails using different approaches to problems.





(D) Where decision is made at the top level.





Answer: (C)











6. A clear fluid diet supplies





(A) Only carbohydrates and calories





(B) Only minerals and vitamins





(C) Only proteins and carbohydrates





(D) Only calories





Answer: (B)











7. There must be alteration between active play and





(A) Group play





(B) Quiet play





(C) Solitary play





(D) Parallel play





Answer: (B)











8. Moderate hearing loss is indicated when a child can hear only at





(A) 26-40 decible





(B) 41-55 decible





(C) 56-70 decible





(D) 71-90 decible





Answer: (B)











9. Disability in reading is called





(A) Hemophilia





(B) Dyslexia





(C) Aphasia





(D) Dysgraphia





Answer: (B)











10. One of the motifs used in Bandhani is





(A) Burfi





(B) Ladoo-Jalebi





(C) Vajra





(D) Gopuram





Answer: (B)







11. Salt is added in dyeing for





(A) Absorption





(B) Exhaustion





(C) Solubility





(D) All the above





Answer: (B)











12. ‘GOTS’ stands for:





(A) Global Ozone Textile Services





(B) Global Organic Textile Standards





(C) Global Organic Textile Specifications





(D) Global Organic Terms and Standards





Answer: (B)











13. One of the type of utility is





(A) System utility





(B) Resource utility





(C) Diminishing utility





(D) Material utility





Answer: (C)











14. Attitudes, feelings and interests are:





(A) Cognitive component





(B) Affective component





(C) Temporal component





(D) Physical component





Answer: (B)











15. The ideal size for flash card is





(A) 22 × 28 inches





(B) 8 × 10 inches





(C) 10 × 12 inches





(D) 12 × 12 inches





Answer: (C)











16. The women centre created at the village level under National Mission for Empowerment of women is





(A) Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK)





(B) Poorna Shakti Kendra (PSK)





(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kendra (RMK)





(D) Mahila Vigyan Kendra (MVK)





Answer: (B)











17. The utilization of calcium is adversely affected by





I. Oxalate





II. Phytate





III. Oxidase





IV. Citrate





Code:





(A) I and III





(B) II and III





(C) III and IV





(D) I and II





Answer: (D)











18. Which of the following nutrients play an important role in the metabolism of Homocysteine?





I. Vitamin B-6





II. Thiamine





III. Vitamin B-12





IV. Folate





V. Calcium





Code:





(A) II, III, V





(B) III, IV, V





(C) I, III, IV





(D) I, II, V





Answer: (C)











19. Identify the terms associated with cereal cooking:





a. Gelation





b. Gelatinization





c. Scum formation





d. Scorching





e. Retrogradation





f. Coagulation





Code:





(A) b, c and d





(B) a, b and e





(C) e, d and b





(D) e, b and f





Answer: (B)











20. Low sodium diet is recommended in:





I. Acute Hepatitis





II. NIDDM





III. Dyslipidemia





IV. CHF





V. Liver Cirrhosis





Code:





(A) IV, V





(B) I, V





(C) II, IV





(D) I, III





Answer: (A)







21. Put the following foods in increasing order according to their sodium content per 100 g





I. Banana





II. Egg





III. Tomato





IV. Spinach





V. Musk Melon





VI. Meat





Code:





(A) IV, V, III, I, VI, II





(B) I, III, IV, V, VI, II





(C) VI, I, III, IV, V, II





(D) III, IV, V, I, II, VI





Answer: (C)











22. The following tools are used for performance appraisal:





I. TQM





II. BARS





III. BEP





IV. RATING SCALE





V. PROCESS CHART





Code:





(A) I, II and IV





(B) II, IV and V





(C) V, IV and III





(D) III, I and V





Answer: (B)











23. The components of intelligence are





I. Hard work





II. Memory





III. Imagination





IV. Problem solving ability





Code:





(A) I, II and IV are correct.





(B) II, III and IV are correct.





(C) I and III are correct.





(D) All are correct.





Answer: (B)











24. Marriage laws are designed to protect





I. Safety of the individual





II. Safety of the society





III. Anti-dowry system





IV. Intercaste marriage





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct.





(B) II and III are correct.





(C) II and IV are correct.





(D) I, II and III are correct.





Answer: (A)











25. Antistatic finish on a textile fabric produces the following effects:





I. Improves the surface conductivity





II. Repels molecules of water from the surface of fabric





III. Develops an electric charge opposite that of a fibre





IV. Increase static build up





(A) II and III are correct.





(B) I and III are correct.





(C) III and IV are correct.





(D) IV and I are correct.





Answer: (B)











26. Traditional costumes of Egypt include





I. Gallebaya





II. Seblah





III. Jabla





IV. Yelek





Codes:





(A) II, III and IV are correct.





(B) I, II and III are correct.





(C) I, II and IV are correct.





(D) I, III and IV are correct.





Answer: (C)











27. Following are the direct systems of yarn numbering:





I. Cotton count





II. Worsted count





III. Denier





IV. Tex





Codes:





(A) II, III are correct.





(B) III, IV are correct.





(C) I, II are correct.





(D) I, IV are correct.





Answer: (B)











28. Principles of design are,





I. Repitition





II. Balance





III. Movement





IV. Harmony





V. Rhythmic





VI. Background





Codes:





(A) I, II, IV, V





(B) II, VI, III, IV





(C) III, IV, I, II





(D) I, III, VI, V





Answer: (A)











29. Following colours are cool colours:





I. Bluish green





II. Reddish orange





III. Blue





IV. Yellow orange





V. Green





Codes:





(A) I, II, III





(B) II, III, IV





(C) I, III, V





(D) III, IV, V





Answer: (C)











30. The order of components of workers input given by Bratton, is as below:





I. Cognitive component





II. Temporal component





III. Physical component





IV. Affective component





Codes:





(A) I, II, III, IV





(B) IV, I, II, III





(C) III, IV, I, II





(D) I, III, II, IV





Answer: (B)











31. In teaching Home Science, which of the following laboratory experiences have important values?





I. Productive experiences





II. Participatory experiences





III. Experimental experiences





IV. Observation experiences





Codes:





(A) I, II and IV are correct.





(B) II, III and I are correct.





(C) I, III and IV are correct.





(D) III, IV and II are correct.





Answer: (B)











32. Women empowerment denotes





I. Freedom from the household work





II. Enable women to insist upon their rights and assert themselves





III. Development of the ability for women to make appropriate decision





IV. Hatred towards men





Codes:





(A) I and II are correct.





(B) II and III are correct.





(C) III and IV are correct.





(D) IV and II are correct.





Answer: (B)











33. The use of knowledge and abilities acquired through non-formal education can be evaluated in terms of





I. Personal development





II. Involvement in community activities





III. Competency in doing similar work





IV. Increased employment opportunities





Codes:





(A) I, II and III are correct.





(B) II, III and IV are correct.





(C) II, IV and I are correct.





(D) I, III and IV are correct.





Answer: (D)











34. Assertion (A): Milk is a complete food for infants.





Reason (R): Weaning should be started only after 8 months.





Codes:





(A) (A) is correct but (R) is false.





(B) (A) is false but (R) is correct.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.





Answer: (A)











35. Assertion (A): Bio-fortification is done to inhibit the natural enzymatic process and to increase shelf life.





Reason (R): It changes the nutritive content of food which delays the ripening process.





Code:





(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.





(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.





Answer: (D)











36. Assertion (A): Infective hepatitis (Type A) is due to a virus generally transmitted through Air contamination.





Reason (R): The disease manifests symptoms like anorexia, fatigue, nausea, vomitting, fever, weight loss and jaundice.





Codes:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.





(C) (A) is true and (R) is wrong.





(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is true.





Answer: (D)











37. Assertion (A): The system theory’s doctrine is that the whole of an entity is more than the sum of its parts.





Reason (R): This is based on cooperative synergistic working of members which is called PERT.





Code:





(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(B) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.





Answer: (A)











38. Assertion (A): Transition means adjustment to new values, expectations, interests and new set of behaviours.





Reason (R): In transition period always physical, intellectual and emotional changes take place.





Codes:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.





(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.





Answer: (B)











39. Assertion (A): When the counselor listens quietly to the counselee, the counselee feels relieved of his problems and develops inner strength.





Reason (R): The counselor’s duty is only listening and questioning.





Codes:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.





(C) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.





(D) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.





Answer: (D)











40. Assertion (A): Height or length of children below the age of two years should be measured with an infantometer.





Reason (R): An infantometer is used for children who cannot stand properly.





Codes:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong





(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.





Answer: (B)











41. Assertion (A): Role of entrepreneur and manager is the same.





Reason (R): Both are risk takers and work for profit for an organizations.





Codes:





(A) (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) (A) and (R) are incorrect.





(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.





(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.





Answer: (B)











42. Assertion (A): Plisse and seersucker have the same puckered effect.





Reason (R): Both are achieved by the same process.





Codes:





(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.





(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.





Answer: (A)











43. Assertion (A): Cross dyeing can produce multi-coloured fabrics.





Reason (R): Two or more fibre types in a fabric accept a different type of dye.





Codes:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.





(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.





(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.





Answer: (A)











44. Assertion (A): Rubber tile is affected adversely by oil, grease, and solvents and so it is not used for kitchen counter tops.





Reason (R): Kitchen counter tops made up of rubber tiles are damaged easily.





Code:





(A) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.





(B) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





Answer: (D)











45. Assertion (A): For planning a functional arrangement of centres, we require to examine, which centres are given choice locations and which are to be grouped together.





Reason (R): The centres that are focal points in the work should be located at last, determining the importance of various centres separately.





Code:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.





(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.





(C) (A) is true but (R) is only partly true.





(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.





Answer: (D)











46. Assertion (A): Ergonomics is the application of human, biological science in conjunction with engineering science to the worker and his working environment and at the same time enhance productivity.





Reason (R): The focus of the study is an worker fatigue.





Codes:





(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.





(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.





Answer: (A)











47. Assertion (A): Home Science education is broad based.





Reason (R): It has within its realm everything that has anything to do with family and community.





Code:





(A) (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) (A) and (R) are not correct.





(C) (A) is correct, (R) is not correct.





(D) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct.





Answer: (A)











48. Assertion (A): Audio-visual aids are not the best teaching aid.





Reason (R): In reality there is no best teaching aid. It all depends upon the situation on which the aids are used.





Code:





(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct





(B) (A) is correct, (R) is not correct





(C) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct





(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct





Answer: (C)











49. Give the correct sequence of the enzymatic browning occurring in cut fruits.





I. D.O.P.A. formation





II. Polyphenolase comes in contact with air





III. Melanin formation





IV. Fruits are cut





V. Orthoquinones formation





Code:





(A) IV, II, I, V, III





(B) IV, III, V, II, I





(C) IV, II, III, V, I





(D) I, IV, III, II, V





Answer: (A)











50. Give the correct sequence of activities with respect to minimum to maximum energy expenditure. (Kcal/min)





I. Washing clothes





II. Reading and writing





III. Carpentery





IV. Watering plants





V. Jogging





VI. Bathing





VII. Cycling





Code:





(A) II, IV, VI, I, III, VII, V





(B) IV, III, I, V, II, VII, VI





(C) I, II, III, VII, IV, V, VI





(D) V, IV, VI, VII, III, II, I





Answer: (A)











51. Give the sequencial progression of symptoms in cirrhosis:





I. Malnutrition and Nacrosis of liver cells





II. G.I. disturbances





III. Ascitis





IV. Fibrosis





V. Oedema





VI. Easophageal varicose





Code:





(A) II, IV, I, III, VI, V





(B) II, IV, I, VI, V, III





(C) I, II, IV, V, III, VI





(D) I, II, VI, IV, V, III





Answer: (C)











52. Give the correct sequence of the steps involved in stepping up a receipe.





I. Evaluate the product and repeat till perfect





II. Double recipe and repeat to get consistent product





III. Prepare the product using original recipe





IV. Double recipe, evaluate and record change





V. If product is satisfactory enlarge by increment of 25 portion





VI. Adjust handling and cooking losses in enlarged quantity





Code:





(A) V, I, II, IV, VI, III





(B) III, I, IV, II, V, VI





(C) IV, I, II, VI, III, II





(D) II, I, IV, V, III, VI





Answer: (B)











53. Write the sequential order of the stages of family life cycle.





I. Establishing stage





II. Shrinking stage





III. Child rearing stage





IV. Expanding stage





V. Empty nest stage





Code:





(A) V, I, III, II, IV





(B) I, III, IV, II, V





(C) III, IV, I, V, II





(D) II, V, III, I, IV





Answer: (B)











54. Arrange the developmental tasks during early childhood period sequentially.





I. Learning to talk





II. Bladder control





III. Learning to walk





IV. Learning gender difference





V. Distinguishing right and wrong





VI. Getting ready to read





Codes:





(A) II, I, III, VI, IV, V





(B) V, II, III, VI, I, IV





(C) III, I, II, IV, VI, V





(D) I, III, IV, II, V, VI





Answer: (C)











55. What is the sequence followed in the manufacture of Denim?





I. Rope or sheet dyeing





II. Drawing in





III. Weaving using 3 × 1 twill





IV. Warping on sectional/direct warping





V. Sizing of yarn





Codes:





(A) I, IV, II, V, III





(B) II, IV, V, III, I





(C) IV, I, V, II, III





(D) II, IV, I, V, III





Answer: (C)











56. Give the correct sequence of printing with azoic dyes.





I. Diazotisation





II. Clearing Naphthol





III. Naptholation





IV. Coupling





Codes:





(A) I, II, III, IV





(B) III, I, IV, II





(C) II, IV, I, III





(D) IV, III, II, I





Answer: (B)








57. How are colours classified? Indicate the correct sequence:





I. Primary





II. Secondary





III. Quarternary





IV. Tertiary





V. Intermediate





Codes:





(A) III, V, IV





(B) I, II, IV





(C) I, II, V





(D) V, I, II





Answer: (B)











58. Write the sequence of steps followed under throughout process management.





I. Sequencing





II. Activating





III. Implementing





IV. Prioritizing





V. Planning





VI. Adjusting





VII. Controlling





VIII. Checking





Codes:





(A) I, V, IV, VII, VI, VIII, II, I





(B) V, IV, I, III, II, VII, VIII, VI





(C) III, II, I, V, VI, VIII, VII, IV





(D) VII, VI, VIII, IV, I, III, II, V





Answer: (B)











59. Arrange in sequence the three aspects of National Literacy Mission





I. Continuing education





II. Total Literacy compaign





III. Post literacy programme





Codes:





(A) I, III, II





(B) II, I, III





(C) III, I, II





(D) II, III, I





Answer: (D)











60. In Edgar Dale’s cone of experience, the audio-visual aids are arranged in a cone with its purpose. Arrange in sequence the given experiences based on its division from the base of the cone.





I. Observing





II. Symbolizing





III. Doing





Codes:





(A) I, II, III





(B) III, II, I





(C) III, I, II





(D) II, I, III





Answer: (C)








61. Arrange in chronological order the experiments for rural reconstruction carried out in India.





I. F.L. Brayne Gurgaon Experiment





II. Lt. Col. Albert Mayer-Etawah Pilot Project





III. Rabindranath Tagore Sriniketan Project





IV. Spencer Hatch Marthandum Project





Code:





(A) I, III, IV, II





(B) II, III, IV, I





(C) I, IV, III, II





(D) IV, II, I, III





Answer: (A)











62. Match the cookery term given in List – I with the Food products given in List – II.





List – I                                    List – II





(Cookery term)            (Food product)





(a) Cut and fold          (i) Vegetable cutlet





(b) Bake blind             (ii) Bread





(c) Coat                       (iii) Pineapple pastry





(d) Cream                    (iv) Bun





(e) Glaze                      (v) Fruit cake





(f) Knock back            (vi) Jam tart





(vii) Biscuits





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)       (e)        (f)





(A)       (ii)        (vi)       (v)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)





(B)       (v)        (iii)       (i)         (v)        (iv)       (ii)





(C)       (iii)       (vi)       (i)         (v)        (iv)       (ii)





(D)       (i)         (ii)        (v)        (iv)       (vi)       (iii)





Answer: (C)











63. Match Nutrient in List – I with the recommended intake in List – II.





List – I                                    List – II





(Nutrient)                    (Recommended Intake)





(a) Fat                          (i) 25-30% of energy





(b) Carbohydrate         (ii) 10-12% of energy





(c) Fibre                       (iii) < 300 mg/d





(d) Protein                   (iv) 50 – 60% of energy





(e) Cholesterol             (v) 30 g/d





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)       (e)





(A)       (ii)        (v)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)





(B)       (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (v)





(C)       (i)         (iv)       (v)        (ii)        (iii)





(D)       (v)        (iii)       (ii)        (i)         (iv)





Answer: (C)











64. Match the oils given in List – I with the saturation level of fatty acids in List – II.





List – I                                    List – II





(Oils)                           (Saturation of fatty acids)





(a) Mustard oil            (i) TFAs





(b) Vanaspati               (ii) Omega 6 PUFA





(c) Rice bran oil           (iii) Omega 3 PUFA





(d) Safflower oil         (iv) MUFA





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)





(B)       (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)





(C)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)





(D)       (iv)       (i)         (iii)       (ii)





Answer: (D)











65. Match the terms in List – I with operations given in List – II.





List – I                                                            List – II





(Terms)                                                (Operations)





(a) Menu standardized recipes            (i) Purchase





(b) Invoice                                           (ii) Sales





(c) Menu flyer                                     (iii) Store





(d) Perpetual inventory                       (iv) Marketing





(e)KOT                                                (v) Production





(f) Portable totes                                 (vi) Delivery





(vii) HR Dept.





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)       (e)        (f)





(A)       (v)        (i)         (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (vi)





(B)       (vii)      (vi)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)       (v)





(C)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)       (v)        (vii)      (iii)





(D)       (ii)        (iv)       (v)        (vi)       (i)         (iii)





Answer: (A)











66. Match List – I with List – II.





List – I                                                List – II





(a) Cleft palate                                    (i) High risk pregnancy





(b) Toxemia                                         (ii) 120-140





(c) Cephalocaudal                               (iii) Congenital





(d) Pulse rate of the new born            (iv) 80-120





(v) Head to toe





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (iii)       (i)         (v)        (ii)





(B)       (i)         (iii)       (iv)       (v)





(C)       (iv)       (ii)        (iii)       (i)





(D)       (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)





Answer: (A)











67. Match the List – I with List – II.





List – I                                    List – II





(a) Howard Gardner               (i) Development tasks





(b) Havighurst                         (ii) Electra complex





(c) Freud S.                             (iii) Multiple intelligence theory





(d) Pavlov                               (iv) Stimulus response theory





(v) Field theory





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (i)         (iii)       (iv)       (ii)





(B)       (iii)       (i)         (ii)        (iv)





(C)       (iv)       (ii)        (iii)       (v)





(D)       (ii)        (iii)       (i)         (iv)





Answer: (B)











68. Match the thread packages given in List – I with their descriptions given in List – II.





List – I                        List – II





(a) Spools                    (i) Centreless thread packages





(b) Cops                      (ii) Used where thread consumption is high





(c) Cones                     (iii) Thread cross wound for stability





(d) Cacoons                 (iv) Smallest packages





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)         (iv)





(B)       (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)





(C)       (ii)        (i)         (iv)       (iii)





(D)       (i)         (iv)       (iii)       (ii)





Answer: (B)











69. Match the traditional textile fabrics given in List – I with their descriptions given in List – II.





List – I                        List – II





(a) Telia Rumal            (i) Woven shawl of Kashmir





(b) Kanikar                  (ii) Printed or painted textile of Andhra Pradesh





(c) Kalamkari              (iii) Embroidered shawl of Kashmir





(d) Amlikar                 (iv) Resist dyed fabric





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (i)         (iii)       (iv)       (ii)





(B)       (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)





(C)       (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)





(D)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)         (iv)





Answer: (B)











70. Match List – I with List – II.





List – I                                    List – II





(a) Utility                                (i) Availability





(b) Accessibility                      (ii) Alternative uses





(c) Interchangeability              (iii) Replaced





(d) Substitution                       (iv) Value or worth





                                                (v) Not given





                                                (vi) Change





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (iv)       (ii)        (v)        (iii)





(B)       (v)        (iv)       (ii)        (iii)





(C)       (ii)        (iv)       (vi)       (i)





(D)       (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)





Answer: (D)











71. Match List – I with List – II.





List – I                                                                                    List – II





(a) Knowledge applied for solutions of problem                    (i) Intelligence





(b) Human quality contributes flexibility in living                  (ii) Judgment





(c) Ability to distinguish between alternatives                       (iii) Adaplability





(d)Willingness to take the lead                                               (iv) Enthusiasm





(e) Well balanced health                                                         (v) Initiative





(vi) Accessibility





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)       (e)





(A)       (i)         (iii)       (ii)        (v)        iv)





(B)       (i)         (vi)       (v)        (ii)        (iii)





(C)       (vi)       (ii)        (iii)       (v)        (iv)





(D)       (v)        (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (vi)





Answer: (A)











72. Match the items given in List – I with List –II .





List – I                        List – II





(a) Written form          (i) Graphics





(b) Spoken form          (ii) Debate





(c) Pictorial form         (iii) Demonstrations





(d) Action form           (iv) Circular letters





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (i)         (iii)       (iv)       (ii)





(B)       (iii)       (ii)        (iv)       (i)





(C)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (iv)





(D)       (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)





Answer: (D)











73. Match the types of learner evaluation given in List – I with its purpose given in List – II.





List – I                                                List – II





(a) Initial evaluation                            (i) To know the improvement during learning





(b) Periodical progress evaluation       (ii) How much learning has been retained and put to use





(c) Summative evaluation                   (iii) Level of learner at the time of Joins the programme





(d) Evaluation of retention learning    (iv) How much learning has taken place





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)





(B)       (iii)       (iv)       (ii)        (i)





(C)       (iii)       (i)         (iv)       (ii)





(D)       (ii)        (iii)       (i)         (iv)





Answer: (C)











74. Match the symptoms in List – I with the disease in List – I.





List – I                                                List – II





(Symptoms)                                         (Disease)





(a) Steatorrhea                                     (i) Nephrotic syndrome





(b) Proteinuria                                     (ii) Diabetes





(c) Negative Nitrogen balance            (iii) Malabsorption syndrome





(d) Glycosuria                                     (iv) Acute Renal Failure





(v) Gout





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       (v)        (iv)       (i)         (ii)





(B)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (v)





(C)       (iii)       (i)         (iv)       (ii)





(D)       (iv)       (v)        (i)         (iii)





Answer: (C)











75. Match the organisations given in List – I with their role given in List – II.





List – I                        List – II





(a) AEPC                    (i) Making standards





(b) BIS                        (ii) Regulation





(c) UNICEF                (iii) Exports





(d) NCERT                 (iv) Child health





(e) ICMR                    (v) Research





(vi) Education





Code:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)       (e)





(A)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)





(B)       (ii)        (iii)       (i)         (v)        (vi)





(C)       (iii)       (i)         (iv)       (vi)       (v)





(D)       (iv)       (iii)       (ii)        (i)         (v)








Answer: (C)


Related Posts

Post a Comment

Labels

General Knowledge 899 General Studies 718 Central Govt. Job 306 General Tamil 172 Mock Test 133 PAPER - I 120 Civics 101 Indian Constitutions 91 Library Science Quiz 80 Library and Information Science Paper II 71 Anna University Jobs 68 Librarian Jobs 65 Computer Science Quiz 64 History Quiz 59 General English 56 NEET 2017 Model Questions 53 Geography 45 Library and Information Science 35 Computer Science 34 Computer Science PAPER - III 32 History Paper II 32 6th Tamil 30 Computer Science PAPER - II 22 Library and Information Science Paper III 19 PAPER - II 18 10th Science 17 General Science Mock Test 17 Life Science Quiz 17 6th Standard Science 16 9th Science 14 Nobel Awards 14 CBSC NET 13 History Mock Test 13 PAPER - III 13 Medical Physicist 12 Economics Paper II 10 8th Science 9 7th Tamil 8 Commerce Paper-2 8 Economics Paper III 8 History Paper III 8 NCERT Text Book 8 General Tamil Quiz 7 Home Science Paper II 7 Labour Welfare Paper III 7 8th Tamil 6 Anthropology Paper II 6 Anthropology Paper III 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III 6 Archaeology Paper II 6 Archaeology Paper III 6 Comparative Literature Paper II 6 Comparative Literature Paper III 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper II 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper III 6 Criminology Paper II 6 Criminology Paper III 6 Education Paper - II 6 Education Paper - III 6 English Paper - II 6 English Paper - III 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - II 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - III 6 Forensic Science Paper II 6 Forensic Science Paper III 6 Geography Paper II 6 Geography Paper III 6 Home Science Paper III 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper II 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper III 6 Indian Culture Paper - II 6 Indian Culture Paper - III 6 International and Area Studies Paper II 6 International and Area Studies Paper III 6 Labour Welfare Paper II 6 Law Paper - II 6 Law Paper - III 6 Management Paper - II 6 Management Paper - III 6 Mass Communication Paper II 6 Mass Communication Paper III 6 Museology and Conservation Paper II 6 Museology and Conservation Paper III 6 Music Paper II 6 Music Paper III 6 Performing Arts Paper II 6 Performing Arts Paper III 6 Philosophy Paper II 6 Philosophy Paper III 6 Physical Education Paper - II 6 Physical Education Paper - III 6 10th Tamil 5 Commerce Paper-3 5 Folk Literature Paper II 5 Folk Literature Paper III 5 Geography Mock Test 5 Linguistics Paper II 5 Linguistics Paper III 5 7th Science 4 9th Tamil 4 Chemistry 4 Geography Quiz 4 11th Tamil 3 6th Standard History 3 7th Tamil Mock Test 3 9th standard Tamil Quiz 3 CSIR-NET - Chemistry 3 Computer Science Video 2 Mathematics Paper II 2 CSIR-NET - Physics 1 Civil Engineer Mock Test 1 Computer Science Paper II 1 General Knowledge Mock Test 1 Geology 1 Interview Questions 1 January Current Affairs - 2016 1 LIS Questions 1 Library Science Paper II 1 Life Science 1 Life Science Paper II 1 Mathematics Quiz 1
Subscribe Our Posting