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Geography 2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper III











1. The concept of geosynclines was given by





(A) James Hall and Dana





(B) Hang





(C) Holmes





(D) Steers





Answer: (A)











2. The Base Level concept was postulated by





(A) James Hutton





(B) J.W. Powell





(C) W.M. Davis





(D) Walther Penck





Answer: (B)











3. Which of the following is formed as a result of tectonic forces?





(A) Hanging valley





(B) V-shaped valley





(C) Rift valley





(D) Blind valley





Answer: (C)











4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                                                                                List – II





a. A plain largely composed of recent alluvium                                  i. Pedi plain





b. a deep sea plain                                                                               ii. Loess plain





c. a plain formed by wind action                                                        iii. Flood plain





d. a level surface lightly covered with thin layer of alluvium             iv. Abyssal plain





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iv         iii         ii          i





(B)       iii         iv         i           ii





(C)       iv         iii         i           ii





(D)       iii         iv         ii          i





Answer: (D)











5. “The present is the key to the past.” This statement was made by





(A) W.M. Davis





(B) James Hutton





(C) Van Ritchthofen





(D) A. Penck





Answer: (B)











6. Which of the following was a part of Lauratia?





(A) Anatolian Plate





(B) Chinese Plate





(C) Iranian Plate





(D) Agean Plate





Answer: (B)











7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the given codes:





List – I                        List – II





a. Normal fault            i. Displacement of both the rock blocks in opposite directions





b. Reverse fault           ii. Movement of both the rock blocks towards each other





c. Lateral fault             iii. Displacement of rock block horizontally along fault plane





d. Stege fault              iv. When the slopes of a series of faults are in same direction





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       iv         iii         ii          i





(C)       iii         i           ii          iv





(D)       ii         iii         i           iv





Answer: (A)











8. When does an escarpment appear?





(A) When a land block moves horizontally.





(B) When a land block moves vertically.





(C) When a land block moves due to water logging.





(D) When a land block moves due to human intervention.





Answer: (B)











9. Identify fluvio-glacial deposits from the following:





(A) Outwash plain





(B) Flood plain





(C) Penne plain





(D) Pan plain





Answer: (A)











10. Migration from developed to less developed region is called as





(A) Emigration





(B) Immigration





(C) Perverse migration





(D) Reverse migration





Answer: (C)











11. “Space is socially or culturally constructed” is the view under





(A) Logical positivism





(B) Behaviouralism





(C) Post modernism





(D) Structuralism





Answer: (C)











12. A counter clock-wise atmospheric circulation in the northern hemisphere is known as





(A) Pressure gradient





(B) Cyclone





(C) Anti-cyclone





(D) Tornado





Answer: (B)











13. The author of the book ‘The Unstable Earth’ is





(A) Paschel





(B) Gilberk G.K.





(C) Mallot C.A.





(D) J.A. Steers





Answer: (D)











14. Which of the following earthquake waves are most destructive?





(A) S-waves





(B) P-waves





(C) R-waves





(D) L-waves





Answer: (A)











15. Mediterranean climate is characterized by





(A) Dry summer and humid winter





(B) Humid summer and Dry winter





(C) Dry summer and Dry winter





(D) Humid summer with no winter





Answer: (A)











16. Insolation reaches the earth surface in the form of





(A) Short waves





(B) Long waves





(C) Microwaves





(D) Lorenz curve





Answer: (A)











17. The range of visible wave length on electromagnetic spectrum is





(A) 0.4 to 0.7 micrometres





(B) 0.7 to 15.0 micrometres





(C) 0.3 to 0.9 micrometres





(D) 0.3 to 15.0 micrometres





Answer: (A)











18. As per the Koppen’s scheme the Bhwh type of climate is found in





(A) Jammu & Kashmir





(B) Rajasthan





(C) Gujarat





(D) Odisha





Answer: (B)











19. Cold dry wind experienced particularly in winter along the eastern coast of Atlantic Ocean and in Northern Italy is called





(A) Cyclone





(B) Boras





(C) Tornado





(D) Hurricane





Answer: (B)











20. The atmosphere gets heated by which one of the following?





(A) Direct rays of the sun





(B) Volcanic activity





(C) Burning of organic material





(D) Radiation from the earth





Answer: (B)











21. A tropical cyclone was located 500 kms. South-West of Visakhapatnam. The cyclone first moved 250 kms in North-West direction and then suddenly changed the direction to the North-East. Which of the following ports would raise the highest danger signal?





(A) Chennai





(B) Haldia





(C) Visakhapatanam





(D) Tuticorin





Answer: (C)











22. Which one of the following regions does not receive much rainfall during the South-West monsoon season?





(A) Tamil Nadu Coast





(B) Maharashtra





(C) Chota Nagpur Plateau





(D) Eastern Himalayas





Answer: (A)











23. In which type of climate equiplanation process i.e., reduction of relief to a plain takes place?





(A) Arid climate





(B) Cold climate





(C) Tropical climate





(D) Temperate climate





Answer: (B)











24. Winter rainfall in North-Western part of India is mainly due to




(A) Western disturbance





(B) North-East Monsoon





(C) North-West Monsoon





(D) Depression in the Bay of Bengal





Answer: (A)








25. Which one of the following phenomena shown in the sketch given below is correct ?





















Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :



Codes :



(A) Normal lapse rate



(B) Upper surface inversion



(C) Lower surface inversion



(D) Environmental lapse rate 





Answer: (B)











26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):





Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India is affected by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.





Reason (R): Tropical cyclone originates only in the Bay of Bengal.





In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.





Answer: (C)











27. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                                            List – II





(Names of tropical cyclones)              (Regions)





a. Hurricanes                                       i. Australia





b. Typhoons                                        ii. Japan





c. Willy-Willy                          iii. U.S.A.





d. Taifu                                               iv. China





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iii         iv         i           ii





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iv         iii         ii          i





(D)       ii          i           iii         iv





Answer: (A)











28. The temperature that provides favourable ecological conditions for living coral reefs is





(A) Less than 10 °C





(B) 10 °C to 15 °C





(C) 15 °C to 20 °C





(D) More than 20 °C





Answer: (D)











29. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                        List – II





a. Coral reef                i. Organic Ocean Deposit





b. Shoal                       ii. Deep flat surface





c. Abyssal plain           iii. Steep descent from the shelf bed





d. Continentalslope     iv. Detachedelevation withshallow depth





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          iii         i           iv





(B)       iv         i           iii         ii





(C)       iii         ii          iv         i





(D)       i           iv         ii          iii





Answer: (D)











30. Which among the following has postulated the Subsidence Theory related to coral reef?





(A) Dally





(B) Agassiz





(C) Darwin





(D) Davis





Answer: (C)











31. If a tide occurs at a place at 6 p.m. when will be the next tide occurs?





(A) 00.13 a.m. of the next day





(B) 06.26 a.m. of the next day





(C) 12.39 p.m. of the next day





(D) 06.52 p.m. of the next day





Answer: (B)











32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Tide                                     i. A warm comparatively fast moving ocean current





b. Tsunami                               ii. A cold ocean current





c. Gulf stream                         iii. The periodic rise and fall of water





d. Labra done current                         iv. Rise of sea water in wave form due to seismic activity





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          i           iii         iv





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iii         iv         i           ii





(D)       iv         iii         ii          i





Answer: (C)











33. Which one of the following ecosystem services is not a part of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report?





(A) Provisioning





(B) Promoting





(C) Supportive





(D) Regulating





Answer: (B)











34. Which one of the following places in India the first bird-sanctuary was set up?





(A) Vedanthangal





(B) Kundremukha





(C) Bannarghata





(D) Keoladeo





Answer: (A)











35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:





Assertion (A): Physical factors provide only a partial and deterministic explanation of geographical distribution of population.





Reason (R): Man is by no means passive in his choice of areas for settlement and everywhere demonstrates an ability to exercise some control over his environment.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.





Answer: (B)











36. Which one of the following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory?





(A) K3





(B) K4





(C) K7





(D) K9





Answer: (B)











37. Assertion (A): Post-industrial city is largely characterised by horizontal expansion.





Reason (R): Land prices are high in the central city.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.





Answer: (A)











38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                        List – II





a. Cantonment             i. Kochi





b. Transport                 ii. Bangalore





c. Mining                     iii. Mau





d. I.T.                          iv. Ankleshwar





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           iii         ii          iv





(B)       iii         ii          iv         i





(C)       iii         i           iv         ii





(D)       iii         i           ii          iv





Answer: (C)











39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below:





Assertion (A): Global urban population is not uniformly distributed by location and nearly two-thirds is relatively concentrated within low elevation coastal areas.





Reason (R): Soil fertility in the coastal areas caused concentration of rural settlements.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (A) is true.





Answer: (B)











40. Which one of the following stages of demographic transition model predicts “a-high birth but a-low death rate”?





(A) First stage





(B) Second stage





(C) Third stage





(D) Late-second stage





Answer: (B)











41. Match the following:





List – I                                    List – II





(State)                                     (Rate of Literacy (%) at 2011 census)





a. Uttarakhand                        i. 69.7





b. Chhattisgarh            ii. 70.0





c. Tamil Nadu             iii. 60.2





d. Gujarat                    iv. 73.4





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          iii         iv         i





(C)       iii         iv         i           ii





(D)       iv         iii         ii          i





Answer: (B)











42. Which one of the following is not an assumption or principle of the concentric zone model of urban land case?





(A) Cultural and social heterogeneity of the population





(B) Transport is equally easy, rapid and cheap in every direction within the city.





(C) None of districts is attractive due to differences in terrain.





(D) There is a concentration of heavy industry.





Answer: (C)











43. Who, amongst the following, defined Geography as a chorological science?





(A) Ptolemy





(B) Richthofen





(C) Hettner





(D) P.E. James





Answer: (C)











44. Who, amongst the following, has propounded the concept of Time Space Geography?





(A) Hagerstrand





(B) Haggett





(C) Johnston





(D) Harvey





Answer: (A)











45. Match the following from the codes:





(Major Proponent)       (Philosophy of Geography)





a. Gibson                     i. Idealism





b. Guelke                     ii. Realism





c. Peet                         iii. Behaviouralism





d. Wright and Kirk     iv. Radicalism





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       i           ii          iv         iii





(C)       ii          i           iv         iii





(D)       ii          i           iii         iv





Answer: (C)











46. Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon?





(A) Chennai





(B) Mumbai





(C) Kochi





(D) Visakhapatnam





Answer: (C)











47. Truck farming is associated with





(A) Vegetables





(B) Milk





(C) Cereals





(D) Poultry





Answer: (A)











48. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is





(A) Rotation of crops





(B) Rotation of fields





(C) Single cropping





(D) Use of plenty of fertilizers





Answer: (B)











49. What is the common practice involved in shifting cultivation?





(A) Use of sophisticated machinery





(B) Large scale use of fertilizers





(C) Utilization of poor soils through ploughing / fallowing





(D) Maximum use of animal power





Answer: (C)











50. Under the scope of town planning in India is covered:





1. Urban renewal





2. Planning of urban amenities and facilities





3. Building of new towns





4. Building of metropolitan cities





Codes:





(A) 1 and 3 are correct.





(B) Only 1 is correct.





(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.





(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.





Answer: (C)











51. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:





List – I                        List – II





a. Rivers                      i. Sand stone





b. Settlements                         ii. Gale





c. Winds                      iii. Levees





d. Rocks                      iv. Satellite





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iii         iv         ii          i





(B)       iv         iii         i           ii





(C)       ii          i           iv         iii





(D)       i           ii          iii         iv





Answer: (A)











52. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Falkland current                  i. Warm current





b. Norwegian current              ii. Cold current





c. Florida current                     iii. Atlantic Ocean





d. Okholsk current                  iv. Kamchetka Peninsula





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          iii         i           iv





(B)       i           ii          iv         iii





(C)       iii         i           ii          iv





(D)       iv         iii         i           ii





Answer: (A)











53. Who has, amongst the followinggeographers, defined Geography of Public Finance ‘who gets what, where, and at what cost’?





(A) R.J. Chorley





(B) David Harvey





(C) P. Claval





(D) R.J. Bennett





Answer: (D)











54. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                                                        List – II





(Natural Parks & Wild Life Sanctuaries)        (States)





a. Nandankanan                                              i. Maharashtra





b. Kaziranga                                                    ii. Madhya Pradesh





c. Bandhavgarh                                               iii. Odisha





d. Melghat                                                       iv. Assam





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          iii         iv         i





(C)       iii         iv         ii          i





(D)       iv         i           iii         ii





Answer: (C)











55. Which of the following is not a supervised image classification technique?





(A) Parallelopiped classifier





(B) Minimum distance to mean classifier





(C) Neural network analysis





(D) Gaussian maximum likelihood classifier





Answer: (C)











56. A meteor is





(A) Comet without a tail





(B) Detached piece of an asteroid





(C) Tiny star





(D) Piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space





Answer: (D)











57. Which one of the following tribes does not correctly matched?





(A) Batwa and Congo Basin





(B) Ruwala and Central Iran





(C) Inuit and Canada





(D) Yuklagir and Siberia





Answer: (B)











58. Which one of the following regions witnessed the growth of mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek?





(A) Temperate region





(B) Savanna region





(C) Mediterranean region





(D) Tundra region





Answer: (C)











59. Which of the following is not considered a geographic pattern?





(A) Centralized





(B) Distributive





(C) Linear





(D) Random





Answer: (B)











60. Machu Picchu of Inca civilization is located in





(A) Argentina





(B) Brazil





(C) Columbia





(D) Peru





Answer: (D)











61. In 1919, Mackinder renamed his ‘Pivot Area’ as ‘Heartland’ in famous book





(A) Foreign Affairs





(B) The Round World and the Winning of the Peace





(C) The Democratic Ideals and Reality





(D) World War and Geography





Answer: (C)











62. The objectives behind building the planned city of Chandigarh were





1. To build a city of modern India’s dreams.





2. To settle down refugees coming to India after the partition.





3. To develop an attractive tourist centre in Northwestern India.





4. To provide capital city to Truncated Punjab.





Codes:





(A) 2 and 4 are correct.





(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.





(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.





(D) only 4 is correct.





Answer: (C)











63. Which of the following sentences is not a correct one?





(A) Utilitarian planning is a functional planning and it strives to achieve a supreme single specific goal.





(B) Sectoral planning is a coordinated planning with planning in various sectors in an integrated manner.





(C) Comprehensive planning has also been used with implicit connotation of integrated planning of all elements of asingle activity.





(D) Town planning is an expression of spatial planning of an urban system.





Answer: (B)











64. Several planned cities have been developed in India after Independence. Which one of the following is not a post-independence planned city?





(A) Gandhinagar





(B) Chandigarh





(C) Jaipur





(D) Bhubaneshwar





Answer: (C)











65. Which one of the following is not a measure of Central tendency?





(A) Arithmetic mean





(B) Mean deviation





(C) Median





(D) Mode





Answer: (B)











66. Which one of the following Indian Remote Sensing Satellites, IRS-P4 is also known as





(A) Resourcesat





(B) Edusat





(C) Remotesat





(D) Oceansat





Answer: (D)











67. Which one of the following States has recorded the lowest human development index?





(A) Bihar





(B) Himachal Pradesh





(C) Punjab





(D) Haryana





Answer: (A)











68. Which one of the following group of States, which includes catchment area of Cauvery river basin, is correct?





(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry and Andhra Pradesh





(B) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Pondicherry





(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Kerala





(D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Pondicherry





Answer: (D)











69. Which one of the following is a centrographic measure?





(A) Geometric mean





(B) Arithmetic mean





(C) Mean centre





(D) Standard deviation





Answer: (C)











70. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Block Mountains                 i. Aravallies





b. Volcanic Mountains            ii. Pennives





c. Relict Mountains                 iii. Vindhyachal





d. Fold Mountains                  iv. Mount Popa





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          i           iv         iii





(C)       iv         iii         ii          i





(D)       iii         iv         i           ii





Answer: (D)











71. Which one of the following map scales is a large scale?





(A) 1: 250,000





(B) 1: 25,000





(C) 1: 500,000





(D) 1: 50,000





Answer: (B)











72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):





Assertion (A): The Raster format data structure provides a greater computational efficiency.





Reason (R): The Raster format data is simple.





In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.





Answer: (C)











73. An original map has the RF–1/50,000 and R.F. of the new map will be 1/250,000. What is the correct proportion of enlargement/reduction as given below?





(A) Reduction 1/5





(B) Enlargement (5 times)





(C) Reduction 1/10





(D) Enlargement (10 times)





Answer: (A)











74. Which one of the following values of correlation coefficient (r) is not correctly matched degree of relationship?





(A) + 0.99 High





(B) + 0.50 Moderate





(C) – 0.01 Very low





(D) – 0.99 Nil





Answer: (D)











75. In which of the following year, IRS-1A was launched





(A) 1982





(B) 1987





(C) 1988





(D) 1990


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