-->

Geography 2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper III











1. The concept of geosynclines was given by





(A) James Hall and Dana





(B) Hang





(C) Holmes





(D) Steers





Answer: (A)











2. The Base Level concept was postulated by





(A) James Hutton





(B) J.W. Powell





(C) W.M. Davis





(D) Walther Penck





Answer: (B)











3. Which of the following is formed as a result of tectonic forces?





(A) Hanging valley





(B) V-shaped valley





(C) Rift valley





(D) Blind valley





Answer: (C)











4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                                                                                List – II





a. A plain largely composed of recent alluvium                                  i. Pedi plain





b. a deep sea plain                                                                               ii. Loess plain





c. a plain formed by wind action                                                        iii. Flood plain





d. a level surface lightly covered with thin layer of alluvium             iv. Abyssal plain





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iv         iii         ii          i





(B)       iii         iv         i           ii





(C)       iv         iii         i           ii





(D)       iii         iv         ii          i





Answer: (D)











5. “The present is the key to the past.” This statement was made by





(A) W.M. Davis





(B) James Hutton





(C) Van Ritchthofen





(D) A. Penck





Answer: (B)











6. Which of the following was a part of Lauratia?





(A) Anatolian Plate





(B) Chinese Plate





(C) Iranian Plate





(D) Agean Plate





Answer: (B)











7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the given codes:





List – I                        List – II





a. Normal fault            i. Displacement of both the rock blocks in opposite directions





b. Reverse fault           ii. Movement of both the rock blocks towards each other





c. Lateral fault             iii. Displacement of rock block horizontally along fault plane





d. Stege fault              iv. When the slopes of a series of faults are in same direction





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       iv         iii         ii          i





(C)       iii         i           ii          iv





(D)       ii         iii         i           iv





Answer: (A)











8. When does an escarpment appear?





(A) When a land block moves horizontally.





(B) When a land block moves vertically.





(C) When a land block moves due to water logging.





(D) When a land block moves due to human intervention.





Answer: (B)











9. Identify fluvio-glacial deposits from the following:





(A) Outwash plain





(B) Flood plain





(C) Penne plain





(D) Pan plain





Answer: (A)











10. Migration from developed to less developed region is called as





(A) Emigration





(B) Immigration





(C) Perverse migration





(D) Reverse migration





Answer: (C)











11. “Space is socially or culturally constructed” is the view under





(A) Logical positivism





(B) Behaviouralism





(C) Post modernism





(D) Structuralism





Answer: (C)











12. A counter clock-wise atmospheric circulation in the northern hemisphere is known as





(A) Pressure gradient





(B) Cyclone





(C) Anti-cyclone





(D) Tornado





Answer: (B)











13. The author of the book ‘The Unstable Earth’ is





(A) Paschel





(B) Gilberk G.K.





(C) Mallot C.A.





(D) J.A. Steers





Answer: (D)











14. Which of the following earthquake waves are most destructive?





(A) S-waves





(B) P-waves





(C) R-waves





(D) L-waves





Answer: (A)











15. Mediterranean climate is characterized by





(A) Dry summer and humid winter





(B) Humid summer and Dry winter





(C) Dry summer and Dry winter





(D) Humid summer with no winter





Answer: (A)











16. Insolation reaches the earth surface in the form of





(A) Short waves





(B) Long waves





(C) Microwaves





(D) Lorenz curve





Answer: (A)











17. The range of visible wave length on electromagnetic spectrum is





(A) 0.4 to 0.7 micrometres





(B) 0.7 to 15.0 micrometres





(C) 0.3 to 0.9 micrometres





(D) 0.3 to 15.0 micrometres





Answer: (A)











18. As per the Koppen’s scheme the Bhwh type of climate is found in





(A) Jammu & Kashmir





(B) Rajasthan





(C) Gujarat





(D) Odisha





Answer: (B)











19. Cold dry wind experienced particularly in winter along the eastern coast of Atlantic Ocean and in Northern Italy is called





(A) Cyclone





(B) Boras





(C) Tornado





(D) Hurricane





Answer: (B)











20. The atmosphere gets heated by which one of the following?





(A) Direct rays of the sun





(B) Volcanic activity





(C) Burning of organic material





(D) Radiation from the earth





Answer: (B)











21. A tropical cyclone was located 500 kms. South-West of Visakhapatnam. The cyclone first moved 250 kms in North-West direction and then suddenly changed the direction to the North-East. Which of the following ports would raise the highest danger signal?





(A) Chennai





(B) Haldia





(C) Visakhapatanam





(D) Tuticorin





Answer: (C)











22. Which one of the following regions does not receive much rainfall during the South-West monsoon season?





(A) Tamil Nadu Coast





(B) Maharashtra





(C) Chota Nagpur Plateau





(D) Eastern Himalayas





Answer: (A)











23. In which type of climate equiplanation process i.e., reduction of relief to a plain takes place?





(A) Arid climate





(B) Cold climate





(C) Tropical climate





(D) Temperate climate





Answer: (B)











24. Winter rainfall in North-Western part of India is mainly due to




(A) Western disturbance





(B) North-East Monsoon





(C) North-West Monsoon





(D) Depression in the Bay of Bengal





Answer: (A)








25. Which one of the following phenomena shown in the sketch given below is correct ?





















Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :



Codes :



(A) Normal lapse rate



(B) Upper surface inversion



(C) Lower surface inversion



(D) Environmental lapse rate 





Answer: (B)











26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):





Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India is affected by tropical cyclones more than the western coast.





Reason (R): Tropical cyclone originates only in the Bay of Bengal.





In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.





Answer: (C)











27. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                                            List – II





(Names of tropical cyclones)              (Regions)





a. Hurricanes                                       i. Australia





b. Typhoons                                        ii. Japan





c. Willy-Willy                          iii. U.S.A.





d. Taifu                                               iv. China





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iii         iv         i           ii





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iv         iii         ii          i





(D)       ii          i           iii         iv





Answer: (A)











28. The temperature that provides favourable ecological conditions for living coral reefs is





(A) Less than 10 °C





(B) 10 °C to 15 °C





(C) 15 °C to 20 °C





(D) More than 20 °C





Answer: (D)











29. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                        List – II





a. Coral reef                i. Organic Ocean Deposit





b. Shoal                       ii. Deep flat surface





c. Abyssal plain           iii. Steep descent from the shelf bed





d. Continentalslope     iv. Detachedelevation withshallow depth





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          iii         i           iv





(B)       iv         i           iii         ii





(C)       iii         ii          iv         i





(D)       i           iv         ii          iii





Answer: (D)











30. Which among the following has postulated the Subsidence Theory related to coral reef?





(A) Dally





(B) Agassiz





(C) Darwin





(D) Davis





Answer: (C)











31. If a tide occurs at a place at 6 p.m. when will be the next tide occurs?





(A) 00.13 a.m. of the next day





(B) 06.26 a.m. of the next day





(C) 12.39 p.m. of the next day





(D) 06.52 p.m. of the next day





Answer: (B)











32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Tide                                     i. A warm comparatively fast moving ocean current





b. Tsunami                               ii. A cold ocean current





c. Gulf stream                         iii. The periodic rise and fall of water





d. Labra done current                         iv. Rise of sea water in wave form due to seismic activity





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          i           iii         iv





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iii         iv         i           ii





(D)       iv         iii         ii          i





Answer: (C)











33. Which one of the following ecosystem services is not a part of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) report?





(A) Provisioning





(B) Promoting





(C) Supportive





(D) Regulating





Answer: (B)











34. Which one of the following places in India the first bird-sanctuary was set up?





(A) Vedanthangal





(B) Kundremukha





(C) Bannarghata





(D) Keoladeo





Answer: (A)











35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:





Assertion (A): Physical factors provide only a partial and deterministic explanation of geographical distribution of population.





Reason (R): Man is by no means passive in his choice of areas for settlement and everywhere demonstrates an ability to exercise some control over his environment.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.





Answer: (B)











36. Which one of the following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory?





(A) K3





(B) K4





(C) K7





(D) K9





Answer: (B)











37. Assertion (A): Post-industrial city is largely characterised by horizontal expansion.





Reason (R): Land prices are high in the central city.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.





Answer: (A)











38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                        List – II





a. Cantonment             i. Kochi





b. Transport                 ii. Bangalore





c. Mining                     iii. Mau





d. I.T.                          iv. Ankleshwar





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           iii         ii          iv





(B)       iii         ii          iv         i





(C)       iii         i           iv         ii





(D)       iii         i           ii          iv





Answer: (C)











39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find the correct answer from the codes given below:





Assertion (A): Global urban population is not uniformly distributed by location and nearly two-thirds is relatively concentrated within low elevation coastal areas.





Reason (R): Soil fertility in the coastal areas caused concentration of rural settlements.





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (A) is true.





Answer: (B)











40. Which one of the following stages of demographic transition model predicts “a-high birth but a-low death rate”?





(A) First stage





(B) Second stage





(C) Third stage





(D) Late-second stage





Answer: (B)











41. Match the following:





List – I                                    List – II





(State)                                     (Rate of Literacy (%) at 2011 census)





a. Uttarakhand                        i. 69.7





b. Chhattisgarh            ii. 70.0





c. Tamil Nadu             iii. 60.2





d. Gujarat                    iv. 73.4





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          iii         iv         i





(C)       iii         iv         i           ii





(D)       iv         iii         ii          i





Answer: (B)











42. Which one of the following is not an assumption or principle of the concentric zone model of urban land case?





(A) Cultural and social heterogeneity of the population





(B) Transport is equally easy, rapid and cheap in every direction within the city.





(C) None of districts is attractive due to differences in terrain.





(D) There is a concentration of heavy industry.





Answer: (C)











43. Who, amongst the following, defined Geography as a chorological science?





(A) Ptolemy





(B) Richthofen





(C) Hettner





(D) P.E. James





Answer: (C)











44. Who, amongst the following, has propounded the concept of Time Space Geography?





(A) Hagerstrand





(B) Haggett





(C) Johnston





(D) Harvey





Answer: (A)











45. Match the following from the codes:





(Major Proponent)       (Philosophy of Geography)





a. Gibson                     i. Idealism





b. Guelke                     ii. Realism





c. Peet                         iii. Behaviouralism





d. Wright and Kirk     iv. Radicalism





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       i           ii          iv         iii





(C)       ii          i           iv         iii





(D)       ii          i           iii         iv





Answer: (C)











46. Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon?





(A) Chennai





(B) Mumbai





(C) Kochi





(D) Visakhapatnam





Answer: (C)











47. Truck farming is associated with





(A) Vegetables





(B) Milk





(C) Cereals





(D) Poultry





Answer: (A)











48. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is





(A) Rotation of crops





(B) Rotation of fields





(C) Single cropping





(D) Use of plenty of fertilizers





Answer: (B)











49. What is the common practice involved in shifting cultivation?





(A) Use of sophisticated machinery





(B) Large scale use of fertilizers





(C) Utilization of poor soils through ploughing / fallowing





(D) Maximum use of animal power





Answer: (C)











50. Under the scope of town planning in India is covered:





1. Urban renewal





2. Planning of urban amenities and facilities





3. Building of new towns





4. Building of metropolitan cities





Codes:





(A) 1 and 3 are correct.





(B) Only 1 is correct.





(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.





(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.





Answer: (C)











51. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:





List – I                        List – II





a. Rivers                      i. Sand stone





b. Settlements                         ii. Gale





c. Winds                      iii. Levees





d. Rocks                      iv. Satellite





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       iii         iv         ii          i





(B)       iv         iii         i           ii





(C)       ii          i           iv         iii





(D)       i           ii          iii         iv





Answer: (A)











52. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Falkland current                  i. Warm current





b. Norwegian current              ii. Cold current





c. Florida current                     iii. Atlantic Ocean





d. Okholsk current                  iv. Kamchetka Peninsula





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       ii          iii         i           iv





(B)       i           ii          iv         iii





(C)       iii         i           ii          iv





(D)       iv         iii         i           ii





Answer: (A)











53. Who has, amongst the followinggeographers, defined Geography of Public Finance ‘who gets what, where, and at what cost’?





(A) R.J. Chorley





(B) David Harvey





(C) P. Claval





(D) R.J. Bennett





Answer: (D)











54. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                                                        List – II





(Natural Parks & Wild Life Sanctuaries)        (States)





a. Nandankanan                                              i. Maharashtra





b. Kaziranga                                                    ii. Madhya Pradesh





c. Bandhavgarh                                               iii. Odisha





d. Melghat                                                       iv. Assam





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          iii         iv         i





(C)       iii         iv         ii          i





(D)       iv         i           iii         ii





Answer: (C)











55. Which of the following is not a supervised image classification technique?





(A) Parallelopiped classifier





(B) Minimum distance to mean classifier





(C) Neural network analysis





(D) Gaussian maximum likelihood classifier





Answer: (C)











56. A meteor is





(A) Comet without a tail





(B) Detached piece of an asteroid





(C) Tiny star





(D) Piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space





Answer: (D)











57. Which one of the following tribes does not correctly matched?





(A) Batwa and Congo Basin





(B) Ruwala and Central Iran





(C) Inuit and Canada





(D) Yuklagir and Siberia





Answer: (B)











58. Which one of the following regions witnessed the growth of mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek?





(A) Temperate region





(B) Savanna region





(C) Mediterranean region





(D) Tundra region





Answer: (C)











59. Which of the following is not considered a geographic pattern?





(A) Centralized





(B) Distributive





(C) Linear





(D) Random





Answer: (B)











60. Machu Picchu of Inca civilization is located in





(A) Argentina





(B) Brazil





(C) Columbia





(D) Peru





Answer: (D)











61. In 1919, Mackinder renamed his ‘Pivot Area’ as ‘Heartland’ in famous book





(A) Foreign Affairs





(B) The Round World and the Winning of the Peace





(C) The Democratic Ideals and Reality





(D) World War and Geography





Answer: (C)











62. The objectives behind building the planned city of Chandigarh were





1. To build a city of modern India’s dreams.





2. To settle down refugees coming to India after the partition.





3. To develop an attractive tourist centre in Northwestern India.





4. To provide capital city to Truncated Punjab.





Codes:





(A) 2 and 4 are correct.





(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.





(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.





(D) only 4 is correct.





Answer: (C)











63. Which of the following sentences is not a correct one?





(A) Utilitarian planning is a functional planning and it strives to achieve a supreme single specific goal.





(B) Sectoral planning is a coordinated planning with planning in various sectors in an integrated manner.





(C) Comprehensive planning has also been used with implicit connotation of integrated planning of all elements of asingle activity.





(D) Town planning is an expression of spatial planning of an urban system.





Answer: (B)











64. Several planned cities have been developed in India after Independence. Which one of the following is not a post-independence planned city?





(A) Gandhinagar





(B) Chandigarh





(C) Jaipur





(D) Bhubaneshwar





Answer: (C)











65. Which one of the following is not a measure of Central tendency?





(A) Arithmetic mean





(B) Mean deviation





(C) Median





(D) Mode





Answer: (B)











66. Which one of the following Indian Remote Sensing Satellites, IRS-P4 is also known as





(A) Resourcesat





(B) Edusat





(C) Remotesat





(D) Oceansat





Answer: (D)











67. Which one of the following States has recorded the lowest human development index?





(A) Bihar





(B) Himachal Pradesh





(C) Punjab





(D) Haryana





Answer: (A)











68. Which one of the following group of States, which includes catchment area of Cauvery river basin, is correct?





(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry and Andhra Pradesh





(B) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Pondicherry





(C) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Kerala





(D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Pondicherry





Answer: (D)











69. Which one of the following is a centrographic measure?





(A) Geometric mean





(B) Arithmetic mean





(C) Mean centre





(D) Standard deviation





Answer: (C)











70. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:





List – I                                    List – II





a. Block Mountains                 i. Aravallies





b. Volcanic Mountains            ii. Pennives





c. Relict Mountains                 iii. Vindhyachal





d. Fold Mountains                  iv. Mount Popa





Codes:





a          b          c          d





(A)       i           ii          iii         iv





(B)       ii          i           iv         iii





(C)       iv         iii         ii          i





(D)       iii         iv         i           ii





Answer: (D)











71. Which one of the following map scales is a large scale?





(A) 1: 250,000





(B) 1: 25,000





(C) 1: 500,000





(D) 1: 50,000





Answer: (B)











72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):





Assertion (A): The Raster format data structure provides a greater computational efficiency.





Reason (R): The Raster format data is simple.





In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?





(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).





(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A).





(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.





(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.





Answer: (C)











73. An original map has the RF–1/50,000 and R.F. of the new map will be 1/250,000. What is the correct proportion of enlargement/reduction as given below?





(A) Reduction 1/5





(B) Enlargement (5 times)





(C) Reduction 1/10





(D) Enlargement (10 times)





Answer: (A)











74. Which one of the following values of correlation coefficient (r) is not correctly matched degree of relationship?





(A) + 0.99 High





(B) + 0.50 Moderate





(C) – 0.01 Very low





(D) – 0.99 Nil





Answer: (D)











75. In which of the following year, IRS-1A was launched





(A) 1982





(B) 1987





(C) 1988





(D) 1990


Related Posts

Post a Comment

Labels

Jobs Alert TNPSC General Knowledge Current Affairs General Studies Tamilnadu Jobs Group IV Dinamani News State Govt. Jobs. Central Govt. Job VAO Current Affairs - 2016 Group 2 General Tamil Current Affairs - 2020 UPSC Current Affairs Mock Test Assistant Group 1 Current Affairs - 2019 TET Current Affairs - 2018 Mock Test Librarian Vacancy Teaching SSC Current Affairs - 2017 PAPER - I TRB Civics History dinamalar News Admission Science Dinamalar Group 4 Indian Constitutions Dinamalar Group 2 Library Science Quiz RRB Officers Mathematics Library and Information Science Paper II Online Quiz Anna University Jobs Dinamani GT Computer Science Quiz Dinaethal TNPSC TNPSC Jobs History Quiz Librarian Jobs TNPSC Result Dinamalar TNPSC Group 2 A Model Questions General English Research Methodology NEET 2017 Model Questions Police Model Questions Free Coaching Class TNTET - Dinamalar Technician Dinakaran Group 4 Geography Current Affairs - 2015 TN Police Model Questions Current Affairs in English 6th Standard General News Answer Key Computer Science Library and Information Science Teaching Aptitude Managers Project Assistant 10th Standard Computer Science PAPER - III History Paper II RESULT 6th Tamil Results Dinathanthi News RRB Model Question Engineers Railway Jobs 9th Standard Clerk UGC NET Group 2 A Hall Ticket Computer Science PAPER - II Current Affairs - 2022 Current Affairs - June 2016 Research Assistant Driver Library and Information Science Paper III Office Assistant tnpsc group IV Aavin Jobs Economics Exam Tips PAPER - II 10th Science Bank Exam General Science Mock Test Life Science Quiz TN Aided School Jobs 6th Standard Science TNPSC Trics TNTET UGC-NET QUIZ Accountant Scientist Trainee Jobs 7th Standard 9th Science Dinamani Group 2 Nobel Awards Nurses CBSC NET History Mock Test PAPER - III Bank Jobs CSIR-NET Medical Physicist STATE GOVT. JOBS 8th Standard Political Science Mock Test Private Jobs Typist Current Affairs - May 2016 Economics Paper II Physics Political Science Paper II TNPSC Annual Planner +2 Result 8th Science INM NEET Online Model Test Security Stenographer commerce Quiz 7th Tamil Attendant Commerce Commerce Paper-2 Economics Paper III Free download History Paper III Indian National Movement NCERT Text Book Political Science Paper III Reasoning Solved Paper - I What Today Adult Education Paper II Adult Education Paper III General Tamil Quiz Home Science Paper II Kerala Jobs Labour Welfare Paper III Professional Assistant Psychology Paper II Sociology Paper - II Sociology Quiz TNPSC Group 2 A UGC NET Result 11th Standard 8th Tamil Anthropology Paper II Anthropology Paper III Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III Archaeology Paper II Archaeology Paper III Biology Civic Comparative Literature Paper II Comparative Literature Paper III Comparative Study of Religions Paper II Comparative Study of Religions Paper III Criminology Paper II Criminology Paper III Current Affairs - April 2016 Defence and Strategic Studies Paper II Defence and Strategic Studies Paper III Education Paper - II Education Paper - III English Paper - II English Paper - III Environmental Sciences Paper - II Environmental Sciences Paper - III Forensic Science Paper II Forensic Science Paper III Geography Paper II Geography Paper III Home Science Paper III Human Rights and Duties Paper II Human Rights and Duties Paper III ISRO Jobs Indian Culture Paper - II Indian Culture Paper - III International and Area Studies Paper II International and Area Studies Paper III Labour Welfare Paper II Law Paper - II Law Paper - III Management Paper - II Management Paper - III Mass Communication Paper II Mass Communication Paper III Museology and Conservation Paper II Museology and Conservation Paper III Music Paper II Music Paper III Performing Arts Paper II Performing Arts Paper III Philosophy Paper II Philosophy Paper III Physical Education Paper - II Physical Education Paper - III Police Political Science Quiz Politics Population Studies Paper II Population Studies Paper III Psychology Paper III Public Administration Paper - II Public Administration Paper - III Sociology Paper - III TNPSC Old Questions TNPSC Syllabus Tamilnadu Tourism Administration and Management Paper II Tourism Administration and Management Paper III UGC NET Exam News Visual Arts Paper II Visual Arts Paper III Women Studies Paper II Women Studies Paper III 10th Result 10th Tamil 12th Standard Administrator Anthropology Quiz Commerce Paper-3 Constable Current Affairs - March 2016 Current Affairs - November-2015 Current Affairs - September Current Affairs English January 2019 Folk Literature Paper II Folk Literature Paper III Geography Mock Test Inspector Librarian Private Jobs Linguistics Paper II Linguistics Paper III News Clipping TN TET TNPSC News Text Books Tribal and Regional Language Paper II 12th Result 7th Science 9th Tamil B.Ed Admission Chemistry Current Affairs - 2021 Current Affairs English Dinathanthi Group 4 Geography Quiz Group-I Jailor Model Questions Lab Assistant Model Questions NIOS - Political Science New Delhi Jobs Success Tips TNPSC Departmental Exam TRB Annual Planner Tribal and Regional Language Paper III tnpsc old questions mcq 11th Tamil 6th Standard History 7th Tamil Mock Test 9th standard Tamil Quiz CSIR-NET - Chemistry Current Affairs - 2023 Current Affairs - December-2015 Foreign Jobs Latest News Paper I Physics Paper II Question Bank TNPSC Cut-off Marks TNPSC Language Test Tamil Nadu GK Telangana Jobs VAO Exam Tricks 12th Revaluation Admission Military College CTET Coaching Class Computer Science Video Current Affairs - GK Video Current Affairs - January 2016 Dinamani Group 4 Model Questions Group 8 Karnataka Jobs Mathematics Paper II Model Test for PAPER - I NEET Exam October-2015 Paper II Pharmacist Police Constable Questions SSC Annual Planner SSLC Tamil Syllabus TN PSC Jobs TN Police Original Questions TNPSC - Synonyms TNPSC Question Bank TNPSC youtube Video TNSET Tamil Paper II The Hindu Group 4 Model Question UGC NET Exam UGC NET Syllabus Who's Who gk 10th Revaluation 8th Standard Tamil About NTA Andhra Pradesh Jobs Antonyms Assistant Jailor Exams Block Health Statistician CESE CMAT & GPAT CSIR-NET - Physics Civil Engineer Mock Test Computer Science Paper II Counselling Current Affairs - Augst 2016 Current Affairs - February 2016 Current Affairs - January 2019 Current Affairs January 2019 Dinamalar Group 4 2019 Disclaimer General Knowledge Mock Test Geology Group VIII Group-II ITI Jobs Interview Questions JEE Exam January Current Affairs - 2016 KVS Teaching LIS Questions Legal Jobs Library Science Paper II Life Science Life Science Paper II Match the following Words Mathematics Quiz Mode of UGC NET Exam NTA NET Exam Paper I November-2015 Online Test Political Science Politicsa Reasoning and Logical Reasoning Scholarship South India Govt. Jobs Statistician TN EB Assessor Exam Model Questions TNPSC EO Exam TNUSRB Questions TRB QUESTIONS Tamil UGC NET Exam Syllabus International and Area Studies UGC NET Exam Syllabus Paper I UGC NET Exam Women Studies Syllabus UGC NET Notifications UGC NET Syllabus for Computer Science Paper II UGC NET Syllabus for Criminology UGC NEt Answer Keys UGC-NET Exam Date UPSC Annual Planner UPSC Old Questions United Nations centr
Subscribe Our Posting