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Forensic Science 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



Forensic Science 2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper II



1. A dead body for autopsy is to be preserved in a cold chamber whose preferred temperature is





(A) – 4 °C





(B) 0 °C





(C) 4 °C





(D) 10 °C





Answer: (C)











2. Which of the following is not a feature of immediate change after death?





(A) Cessation of brain function





(B) Cessation of heart function





(C) Cooling of the body





(D) Stoppage of respiration





Answer: (C)











3. Match the following:





List – I                        List – II





(a) Parathion                i. O, O-dimethyl-Sdithiophosphate





(b) Dimethoate            ii. O, O-Dimethyl dithiophosphate of diethyl mercaptosuccinate





(c) Phosphamidon       iii. O, O-diethyl-O-pnitrophenylthiophosphate





(d) Malathion              iv. O, (2-chloro-2- diethyl carbamoyl)- 1-methyl-vinyl-O, O-di-methmylphosphate





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       iii         i           iv         ii





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iii         ii          i           iv





(D)       ii          iii         i           ii





Answer: (A)











4. Match the following:





List – I                        List – II





(a) Delusion                 i. Desire to steal articles of small value





(b) Hallucination         ii. False belief which is not a fact





(c) Illusion                   iii. False perception without a stimulus





(d) Kleptomania          iv. False interpretation of a stimulus





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       iii         iv         i           ii





(B)       ii          iii         iv         i





(C)       i           ii          iii         iv





(D)       iv         i           ii          iii





Answer: (B)











5. The test to identify vaginal epithelialcells in a case of sexual assault is





(A) Barberio’s test





(B) Florence’s test





(C) Lugol’s iodine test





(D) Precipitin test





Answer: (C)











6. Rule of Hasse helps in the determination of





(A) Age of Fetus





(B) Congenital anomalies of fetus





(C) Sex of fetus





(D) Stature of fetus





Answer: (A)











7. Which of the following conditions does not resemble rigor mortis?





(A) Cold stiffening





(B) Gas stiffening





(C) Pugilistic attitude





(D) Tetanus





Answer: (D)











8. The total number of temporary molars in a child aged 7 years





(A) Zero





(B) Four





(C) eight





(D) twelve





Answer: (C)











9. Fine, white lathery froth that is copious and tenacious around mouth and nostrils is suggestive of death due to





(A) Drowning





(B) Epilepsy





(C) Morphine poisoning





(D) Snake bite





Answer: (A)











10. Which is the best bone for determination of sex from skeletal remains?





(A) Skull





(B) Pelvis





(C) Scaphoid





(D) Pisiform





Answer: (B)











11. Intersex means





(A) Intermingling of sexual traits in a person





(B) Determination of fetal sex





(C) Female homosexuality





(D) Sodomy





Answer: (A)











12. The diameter of LG shot is





(A) 9.14 mm





(B) 8.43 mm





(C) 6.83 mm





(D) 5.16 mm





Answer: (A)











13. Derringers are single shot pistols, which possess





(A) Single barrel





(B) Multiple barrels





(C) Choke in the barrel





(D) Magazine





Answer: (B)





























































Answer: (B)











15. In the firing mechanism of firearm trombone action is also called as





(a) Pump action





(b) Lever action





(c) Bolt action





(d) Slide action





Codes:





(A) (a) and (b) are correct





(B) (a) and (c) are correct





(C) (b) and (d) are correct





(D) (a) and (d) are correct





Answer: (D)











16. The probable time of last fire from a firearm can be determined by





(A) Dispersion of pellets





(B) Fouling





(C) Trajectory of projectile





(D) Muzzle velocity of projectile





Answer: (B)











17. Assertion (A): In Absorption-Inhibition method, specificabsorption is allowed to proceed by placing antigenic material in contact with its homologous antibody.





Reason (R): This absorption renders the serum less potent, and the inhibition of its activity is measured.





Codes:





(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.





(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.





(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.





(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.





Answer: (C)











18. The major metabolite of benzodiazepines is





(A) Benzoylecgonine





(B) Oxymorphone





(C) THC-acid





(D) Desmethyldiazepam





Answer: (D)











19. The presence of BHC is established by separation of its constituents by





(A) SDS-PAGE





(B) Northern blotting





(C) Chromatography





(D) Southern blotting





Answer: (C)











20. Ester test is done for the identification of which of the following poisons?





(A) Dhatura





(B) Opium





(C) Calatropis





(D) Abrus





Answer: (C)











21. Which of the following reagents is used to identify the vaginal secretion on the basis of detecting glycogenated epithelial cells?





(A) Benzidene reagent





(B) Periodic acid-schiff reagent





(C) Nessler’s reagent





(D) Iodoplatinate reagent





Answer: (B)











22. The presence of blood in the semen causing pink or reddish colour is known as





(A) Azoospermia





(B) Histospermia





(C) Oligospermia





(D) Hematospermia





Answer: (D)











23. Double helix structure of DNA was reported by





(A) Watson and Crick





(B) Saikai and Mullis





(C) Oswald Avery





(D) Alec Jeffreys





Answer: (A)











24. Individuals who produce A, B and H blood group specific substances in body fluids are called as





(A) Secretors





(B) Non-secretors





(C) Lewis positive





(D) Lewis negative





Answer: (A)











25. In STR loci, the tandem repeat unit consists of





(A) 2-7 bp





(B) 242 bp





(C) 1100 bp





(D) 35 bp





Answer: (A)











26. The major advantage of the SEM includes the following except





(A) Its great depth of field





(B) Its high resolution





(C) Its high magnification





(D) Its ability to polarize light





Answer: (A)











27. IR spectra fail to distinguish





(A) Tautomer





(B) Enantiomers





(C) Conformers





(D) Stereoisomers





Answer: (B)























































Answer: (B)











29. Match the following:





List – I                                    List – II





(a) Ultraviolet light                 i. 2.5 – 25 μ





(b) Visible light                       ii. 2000 – 4000 °A





(c) X-ray                                  iii. 4000 – 8000 °A





(d) Near IR region                  iv. 0.1 – 100 °A





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       ii          i           iv         iii





(B)       iv         iii         ii          i





(C)       ii          iii         iv         i





(D)       iii         i           ii          iv





Answer: (C)











30. First G.E.Q.D. in India was started at





(A) Kolkata





(B) Shimla





(C) Hyderabad





(D) Delhi





Answer: (B)











31. Juvenile courts are meant for trial of





(A) Mentally ill persons





(B) Foreign citizens





(C) Criminal lawyers





(D) Children below 18 years





Answer: (D)











32. Which of the following courts is not a court of trial?





(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate





(B) First Class Judicial Magistrate





(C) Additional District and Session Judge





(D) Hight Court





Answer: (D)











33. Match the following:





List – I                        List – II





(a) DNA                      i. Osborn





(b) Documents            ii. Hatcher





(c) Ballistics                iii. Landsteiner





(d) Blood                    iv. Jefferys





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       iv         i           ii          iii





(B)       i           ii          iii         iv





(C)       iv         iii         i           ii





(D)       iv         ii          i           iii





Answer: (A)











34. After collecting the blood stained soil from the scene, it should be sent for examination:





(A) As such without drying





(B) After drying in oven





(C) After drying under fan





(D) After drying under shade





Answer: (D)











35. Prostate-specific antigen is also called as





(A) Proteinase K





(B) Amylase





(C) P30





(D) Ptylase





Answer: (C)











36. Seminal acid-phosphatase is produced in the





(A) Adrenal gland





(B) Prostate gland





(C) Thyroid gland





(D) Pituitary gland





Answer: (B)











37. Microscopic air packets or vacuoles within the cortex of hair is called as





(A) Ovoid bodies





(B) Protein fibrils





(C) Cortical fussi





(D) Vacuum pockets





Answer: (C)











38. Creatinine in urine reacts with picric acid to form





(A) Di-sodium picrate





(B) Ammonium picrate





(C) Albumin picrate





(D) Creatinine picrate





Answer: (D)











39. Graying hair is as a result of loss of





(A) tyrosinase activity





(B) Proteinase activity





(C) Pectinase activity





(D) glucomylase activity





Answer: (A)











40. Type lines can be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround ______.





(A) Pattern area





(B) Inner terminus





(C) Outer terminus





(D) Core





Answer: (A)











41. All the ten fingers having loop pattern will have classification as _________.





(A) 0/0





(B) 1/1





(C) 32/32





(D) 64/64





Answer: (B)











42. _________ technique is used to decipher latent finger-prints on wet non-porous surfaces.





(A) Small Particle Reagent (SPR)





(B) Ninhydrin





(C) Crystal violet





(D) Amido Black





Answer: (A)











43. Which of the following are examples of diacritic marks in handwriting?





(A) Dots of i and j





(B) loops of g and j





(C) Curves of i and j





(D) Loops of p and y





Answer: (A)











44. Which of the following techniques is considered effective to develop latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces?





(A) Super glue





(B) Ninhydrin





(C) Diazafluorenone (DFO)





(D) Crystal violet





Answer: (A)











45. A bright halo observed near the border of a glass particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index is known as





(A) Refractive point





(B) Birefringence





(C) A straight line





(D) Becke line





Answer: (D)











46. Compressive strength analysis is done in case of





(A) Paint smear





(B) Hair





(C) Footprint





(D) Cement block





Answer: (D)











47. The following compound is not present in Borosilicate glass:





(A) Silica (SiO2)





(B) K2O





(C) Al2O3





(D) CaO





Answer: (D)











48. 4R rule of glass fracture relates to





(A) Concentric fracture





(B) Radial fracture





(C) Rib mark





(D) Hackle mark





Answer: (B)











49. Match the following ingredients of paint:





List – I                        List – II





(a) Pigment                  i. Zirconium napthemate





(b) Oil                          ii. Soya alkyd resin





(c) Drier                       iii. Titanium oxide





(d) Binder                   iv. Linseed oil





Codes:





(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)





(A)       iii         i           iv         ii





(B)       i           iii         iv         ii





(C)       ii          iv         i           iii





(D)       iii         iv         i           ii





Answer: (D)











50. Radioactivity of a substance can be measured by





(A) Geiger Muller Counter





(B) Neon tubes





(C) Radiometric methods





(D) Photomultiplier tubes





Answer: (A)


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