1. “Administration, not the sword, is the key to enduring in the Great Society.” Who said it?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Charles A. Bernard
(C) Adams Brooks
(D) M.E. Dimock
Answer: (B)
2. Separation between Politics and Administration had become an ‘outworn credo’. Who said this?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Frank J. Goodnow
(D) Herbert Simon
Answer: (B)
3. “In the Science of Administration, whether public or private, the basic good is efficiency.” Who among the following made this statement?
(A) L. Urwick
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) Henry Fayol
(D) J.D. Mooney
Answer: (B)
4. Post-modern Public Administration is based on a trilogy of post-behaviour tenets of Public Administration. Which of the following is the trilogy?
(A) Critical Theory, New Left Ideology and Constructivism.
(B) New Public Administration, Critical Theory and New Public Management.
(C) New Public Administration, Public Choice Theory, and New Public Management.
(D) Critical Theory, Phenomenology and Structural Theory.
Answer: (D)
5. Benn and Gaus contend that Publicness and Privateness in society are comprised of three dimensions.
Identify the dimensions propounded by them.
(A) Agency, institution and person
(B) Agency, interest and access
(C) Institution, interest and person
(D) Interest, person and access
Answer: (B)
6. Public Management is the merger of normative orientation of traditional Public Administration and the instrumental orientation of General Management. Who said it?
(A) Christopher Hood
(B) Tullock
(C) Van ban-Lane
(D) Perry and Kramer
Answer: (D)
7. “We are living in the age of organization Man” who among the following had said it?
(A) W.H. White
(B) L.D. White
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Herold E. Dimock
Answer: (A)
8. Assertion (A): Open model theorists dislike the rigidity, inflexibility and anti-humanist view of bureaucracy.
Reason (R): Close-model theorists consider organization as a fluid network structure.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
9. Consider the following factors:
(i) Nature of work
(ii) Age of agency
(iii) Leadership
(iv) Location of the organizational units
Which one of the following principles of organization is determined by above stated factors?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Unity of command
(C) Span of control
(D) Authority
Answer: (C)
10. Who among the following has called staff agency as ‘it is her alter-ego’?
(A) James D. Mooney
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Pffifner and Presthus
(D) Dimock, Dimock and Koeing
Answer: (C)
11. The concept of ‘Unity of vision’ is a core theme of
(A) Matrix organisations
(B) Missionary agencies
(C) Field based offices
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
12. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Types of Leaders) (Attributes)
a. Climbers 1. Motivation and Commitment
b. Conservers 2. Maximisation of Roles and Resources
c. Zealots 3. Power, Income and Prestige
d. Advocates 4. Sense of Public Interest
5. Minimum change
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 5 1 2
(B) 2 4 1 2
(C) 3 5 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Answer: (A)
13. “The process of transfer of administrative authority from lower to higher level of government is called centralization, the converse, decentralization”. Who has given the above definition?
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) L.D. White
(C) J.C. Charlesworth
(D) James W. Fester
Answer: (B)
14. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given follow:
List – I List – II
(Definitions) (Authors)
a. An employee should receive orders from one superior only. 1. Henry Fayol
b. A man cannot serve two masters. 2. Pfiffner and Presthus
c. Every member of an organization should report to one and only one leader. 3. Dimock and Dimock
d. Each employee should have only one boss. 4. Gullick and Urwick
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Answer: (A)
15. The term ‘Charisma’ used by Max Weber in the ideal type is taken from which of the following languages?
(A) German
(B) Greek
(C) Italian
(D) Roman
Answer: (B)
16. Match of the following statements are correct in relation to F.W. Taylor’s ‘Scientific Management’?
(i) Time and methods of study maybe used to find out the best way of performing a job.
(ii) Specialists may be employed to perform the tasks.
(iii) Workers must perform the job in whichever way they like.
(iv) Work place and incentives are not linked to output.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)
17. Which of the following concepts are related to constructive conflict as suggested by Mary Parker Follet?
(i) Domination
(ii) Compromise
(iii) Integration
(iv) Delegation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)
18. Assertion (A): The satisfying administrative man is different from the maximising man.
Reason (R): The administrative man does not search for the optimal decision but a satisfactory one
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
19. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Author) (Types of Leadership)
a. Mooneyand Reiley 1. Institutionalists, Specialists, Hybrids
b. Etzioni 2. Titular leaders, Controllers, true organizers
c. Marwick 3. Officials, Informal and formal leaders
d. Gowldner 4. Locals and Cosmopolitans
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Answer: (B)
20. Clayton Alderfer attempted to rework Maslow’s need hierarchy to align it more closely with empirical research. His revised need hierarchy is labelled as
(A) Theory of Needs
(B) Self efficiency theory
(C) ERG theory
(D) Equity theory
Answer: (C)
21. Who is the author of the book titled ‘Bureaucrazy’?
(A) Michael Crozier
(B) M.K. Kaw
(C) P.N. Haxer
(D) Veerappa Moily
Answer: (B)
22. Which of the following is not the assumption of theory X?
(A) Most people must be corrected and controlled.
(B) The average human being prefers to be directed.
(C) Most of the people do not dislike work inherently.
(D) People have relatively little ambitions and wants.
Answer: (C)
23. Which of the following are the foci areas of research in Comparative Public Administration as identified by Ferrel Heady?
(i) Component approach
(ii) Modified traditional approach
(iii) Development system model
(iv) General system model
(v) Middle range theory
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
Answer: (B)
24. Which of the following are the features of Diffracted Society according to Fred Riggs”?
(i) Universalilsm
(ii) Ascription
(iii) Attainment
(iv) Particularism
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (D)
25. Which one of the following is the concern of the Hatch Act 1919?
(A) Political activities of Civil Servants
(B) Right to strike
(C) Right to form association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Answer: (A)
26. Who is in-charge of the office of Public Service and Science in Britain?
(A) Lord Chancellor
(B) Chancellor of Exchequer
(C) The Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster
(D) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: (C)
27. In Britain, responsibility for Central Co-ordination and Management of Civil Services is divided between:
(A) Treasury and Home Department
(B) Prime Minister and Home Department
(C) Cabinet Office and Prime Minister’s Office
(D) Cabinet Office and Treasury
Answer: (D)
28. Comparative Public Administration is not concerned with
(i) Search for the theory of administration.
(ii) Practical application of knowledge.
(iii) Observance of Cultural factors
(iv) Study of ongoing problems of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)
29. What type of budgetary method is used in the context of Development Administration?
(A) Performance Budget
(B) Block vote Budget Allocation System
(C) Zero-base Budget
(D) Line-Item Budget
Answer: (A)
30. Planning in Development Administration with the objective of optimal location of services like Schools, Hospitals and Banks etc. Is known as
(A) Local planning
(B) Spatial planning
(C) Vertical planning
(D) Horizontal planning
Answer: (B)
31. Catastrophe theory developed by Rene Thom for the study of development administration has been borrowed from
(A) Physics
(B) Applied Mathematics
(C) Applied Economics
(D) Disaster Management
Answer: (B)
32. Who expressed the view that development administration requires a parallel strengthening of the democratic and representative political process?
(A) F.W. Riggs
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) La Palombara
(D) George Cant
Answer: (B)
33. Which of the following features of Development Administration are shared by New Public Administration?
(i) Effective coordination
(ii) Change orientation
(iii) Temporal dimension
(iv) Goal orientation
(v) Ecological perspective
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (v)
(D) (iv) and (v)
Answer: (A)
34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to promulgate an ordinance?
(A) Article 53
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 122
(D) Article 123
Answer: (D)
35. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The first Administrative Reforms Commission recommended that the number of Ministers including Prime Minister should be sixteen.
(ii) The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003 specify that the total number of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of people.
(iii) The Constitution has classified the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks.
(iv) The National Democratic Alliance Government (headed by Mr. A .B. Vajpai) had all the three types Ministers.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv)
Answer: (A)
36. Which of the following statements is not correct about the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)?
(A) It was constituted in 2004 after Kargil War.
(B) If is located in P.M.O. under the supervision of National Defence Adviser.
(C) R.A.W., I.B., and Police Stations of the Country are interlinked with NTRO.
(D) It stocks technical intelligence reports.
Answer: (C)
37. What is the legal basis for the establishment of Cabinet Committees in India?
(A) Rules for Parliamentary procedure.
(B) Allocation of Business Rules, Government of India.
(C) Resolution of Cabinet.
(D) Decision of Prime Minister.
Answer: (B)
38. Which of the following has been described as ‘the master key to good governance’ by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission?
(A) Promoting e-governance
(B) Social Capital – A shared Destinity
(C) Ethics in Governance
(D) Right to information
Answer: (D)
39. ‘The Chief Secretary’s job is not a technicians’ or even a professionals’, he is not a knowledgeable engineer nor even a first class magistrate, he is a part of process of Government and in democratic republic, part of human process’. Who made this statement?
(A) Mohan Mukharjee
(B) Dharmvir
(C) E.N. Mangat Rai
(D) V.D. Murti
Answer: (C)
40. Which one of the following is the first law on Freedom of information?
(A) Freedom of Information Act (U.K.)
(B) Freedom of Press Act (Sweden)
(C) Freedom of Information Act (USA)
(D) Freedom of Information Act (India)
Answer: (B)
41. Arrange the following stages in Disciplinary proceedings for major penalty in a correct sequential order and select the answer from the codes given below:
(i) Compliant followed by Preliminary investigation.
(ii) Acceptance of charges or rejection of charges.
(iii) Appointment of Inquiry Officer.
(iv) Consultation with UPSC.
(v) Submission of Report by Investigation Officer.
(vi) Final order.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi), (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (vi)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi), (iv)
Answer: (C)
42. Consider the following statements regarding All India Services established as per the provision of Article 312.
(i) All India Services are created consequent upon a resolution of Council of States declaring that itis necessary and expedient in the national interest to create an All India Service.
(ii) The Parliament may provide for the creation of new All India Service by making a law as per the resolution of the council of states.
(iii) The Supreme Court has also directed the Government of India to take steps for setting up an All India Judicial Service.
(iv) All the services proposed to be established under the All India Service (Amendment) Act, 1963have been established.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)
43. “The heart of an administrator must be located in his brain” – This statement is given by
(A) Paul H. Appleby
(B) S.V.B. Patel
(C) A.D. Gorwala
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (B)
44. Which of the following Committee/Commissions recommended the repeal of Article 310 and Article 311 in the Indian Constitution.
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission.
(B) Rajamannar Committee
(C) P.C. Hota Committee
(D) Second Administrative Reforms Commission.
Answer: (D)
45. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution an appropriate legislature may by law regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of Union or State Public Services?
(A) Article 308
(B) Article 309
(C) Article 310
(D) Article 311
Answer: (B)
46. Which one of the following recommended that the name of the Central Police Training College should be changed as the National Police Academy?
(A) Gore Committee
(B) National Police Commission
(C) The Kohli Committee
(D) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Answer: (C)
47. Match List – I with List – II and selectthe correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concepts) (Explanations)
a. Capital expenditure 1. Expenditure towards normal running of Government
b. Revenue expenditure 2. Expenditure for creating concrete assets of a material character.
c. Gross Fiscal deficit 3. Increase in the net credit by Reserve Bank of India to Central Government
d. Monetary deficit 4. Resources gap in terms of excess of total Government expenditure over revenue receipts and grants.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Answer: (B)
48. Which of the following statements about Budget are correct?
(i) Budget is an economic horoscope of the country.
(ii) Budget is a political document which provides a glimpse of entire philosophy of Government.
(iii) Budget is formulated by legislature.
(iv) Budget is nut-bolt of public policy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Answer: (D)
49. Which of the following statements about controller & Auditor General of India are correct?
(i) It is a British Legacy.
(ii) It is independent and autonomous to undertake public audit.
(iii) It does not have the power to determine the nature and extent of the audit.
(iv) It has the inherent right to determine what should be included in the audit report.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)
50. Which of the following are considered as the criteria for selecting a research topic?
(i) Relevance
(ii) Utility
(iii) Feasibility
(iv) Ethical Acceptability
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (D)
51. Which of the following observation about actual engagement behaviour of workers on job with machine is termed as
(A) Simple observation
(B) Systematic observation
(C) Participant observation
(D) Non-participant observation
Answer: (B)
52. Which of the following is not a type of Attitude Scale?
(A) Summated Rating Scale
(B) Thurston’s Equal Appearing Interval Scale
(C) Graphic Scale
(D) Bagardus Social Distance Scale
Answer: (C)
53. Consider the following statements regarding interview method of data collection and select the incorrect one.
(A) It is the most common method for collecting qualitative information.
(B) It is a method which is usually conducted face to face and involves one interviewer and one interviewee.
(C) It is technique designed to elicit a detailed view point of the informants.
(D) Interviewer’s notes may not be considered as research data.
Answer: (D)
54. Public Methodology affording testing of conclusions is an inherent article of faith of Scientific Method. The reasons are:
(i) It helps in replication of results.
(ii) It explains the context and conditions of Social Science Research.
(iii) It fulfils the scientific obligations for bringing improvements in research tools.
(iv) It helps in exposing inconsistencies in the Social Science Research.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)
55. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to ‘State and District Administration’?
(A) 12th
(B) 13th
(C) 14th
(D) 15th
Answer: (D)
56. Which of the following body remarked that the ‘Block Development Office’ should be spinal cord of the rural development process?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) K. Santhanam Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Answer: (D)
57. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections as per
(A) Article 325
(B) Article 241
(C) Article 243-K
(D) Article 245-D
Answer: (C)
58. K. Shanthanam Committee (1963) was set up to look into
(A) Personnel of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) Finances of Panchayati Raj Institutions
(C) Personnel of Urban Local Self Government
(D) Finances of Urban Local Self Government
Answer: (B)
59. Which of the following are parts of the classification of Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes made by National Urbanization Commission?
(i) Programmes for employment generation.
(ii) Shelter and Physical environment related programmes.
(iii) Nutrition supplement programmes.
(iv) Development of institutional capacities of service agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (B)
60. “As the periodicity of constitution of the Central Finance commission is predictable, the State should time the constitution of their State Finance Commissions suitably.” It was observed by
(A) 10th Finance Commission
(B) 11th Finance Commission
(C) 12th Finance Commission
(D) 13th Finance Commission
Answer: (C)
61. “Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons registered in electoral rolls relating to a village comprised with area of panchayat at the village level.” Which of the following has given above description of Gram Sabha?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singvi Committee
(D) Constitution of India
Answer: (D)
62. The term ‘Social Justice’ is originally based on the teachings of
(A) St. Thomas Aquinas
(B) Karl Marx
(C) John Rawls
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (A)
63. The Central Social Welfare Board was established by:
(A) Parliamentary enactment
(B) Resolution of Cabinet
(C) Registration under company Act, 1956
(D) The order of the President
Answer: (C)
64. The interaction between Government and NGOs in India mostly relates to
(i) Policies and legislation related to disadvantaged sections.
(ii) Economic policies
(iii) Operational collaboration for programmes with or without Government funding.
(iv) Peaceful protest movement of people in which NGOs are involved.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv)
Answer: (C)
65. What is the name of the integrated scheme for women empowerment being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?
(A) TRYSEM
(B) DWACRA
(C) Swayamsidha
(D) Swabhiman
Answer: (C)
66. Policy monitoring may lead to which of the following actions?
(i) Strengthening and improving the policy programmes.
(ii) Replanning of the policy programme.
(iii) Cancellation of the policy programme.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (iii)
Answer: (C)
67. Assertion (A): Public Policy is whatever Governments choose to do or not to do.
Reason (R): Policy making is clearly related to decision making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
68. Arrange the following steps in Policy Analysis in the correct sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Problem identification
(ii) Forecasting and evaluating the alternatives.
(iii) Determining alternative courses of action.
(iv) Policy choice
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Answer: (B)
69. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Thomas R. Dye 1. Policy Analysis for the Real World
b. B.W. Hogwood and L.A. Gunn 2. Speaking Truth ‘to power the Art and Craft of Policy Analysis
c. A. Wildavsky 3. Managing the Public Sector
d. A. Massey 4. Understanding Public Policy
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (B)
70. Which of the following states does not have 50 percentage seats reserved for women in the local self-government institutions/Panchayati Raj Institutions as on March, 2012?
(A) Tripura
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Rajasthan
Answer: (B)
71. Which of the following does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Delhi
(D) Lakshadweep
Answer: (C)
72. Which of the following committees recommended the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act?
(A) B.D. Sharma Committee
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) M.M. Punchhi Commission
(D) Dileep Singh Bhuria Committee
Answer: (D)
73. In which part of the Constitution of India, ‘Economic and Social Planning’ is included?
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Eighth Schedule
Answer: (C)
74. How many Public Sector Undertakings were recognized as ‘Maharatnas’ in India till the year 2011?
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Seven
(D) Nine
Answer: (B)
75. Which one of the following is not the correct form and method of Public Private Partnership?
(A) Lease, Concessions, Greenfield Projects and Divestiture.
(B) Management Contract, Lease, Brown field Project and Concessions.
(C) B.O.O., B.O.T., B.O.O.M., and Management Contract
(D) Divestiture, Lease, Greenfield Projects and Public Services.
Answer: (D)
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