UGC NET Solved Question Paper III in Environmental Sciences { 2013 June }

1. Most of the day to day weather changes are associated with which scale in meteorology?

(A) Micro scale

(B) Meso scale

(C) Synoptic scale

(D) Planetary scale

Answer: (C)

2. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

(Date)                          (Event)

(a) 5th June                 (i) National Pollution Prevention Day

(b) 2nd December       (ii) World Environment Day

(c) 22nd May              (iii) World Forest Day

(d) 21st March            (iv) Bio-diversity Day


       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (A)

3. ‘Fanning’ smokestack plumes are observed when

(A) There is an inversion above the ground surface.

(B) There is unstable atmosphere.

(C) There is neutrally stable atmosphere.

(D) The stack height is below an inversion layer.

Answer: (A)

4. The cyclonic winds are generated by the approximate balance between

(A) Pressure gradient force and coriolis force

(B) Centrifugal force and coriolis force

(C) Centrifugal force, coriolis force and frictional drag force.

(D) Centrifugal force and pressure gradient force.

Answer: (D)

5. Mixing height is determined by

(A) Adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate.

(B) Vertical profile of wind speeds and adiabatic lapse rate.

(C) Vertical profiles of wind speedsand ambient temperature.

(D) Wind speeds and solar insolation.

Answer: (A)

6. United Nations has declared “UN Decade of Education for sustainable Development” and the decade identified for this education is

(A) 2006 – 2015

(B) 2005 – 2014

(C) 2011 – 2020

(D) 2012 – 2021

Answer: (B)

7. Halon – 1301 is a

(A) Fire extinguisher

(B) Solvent

(C) Refrigerant

(D) Aerosol propellant

Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following is a primary pollutant in atmospheric air?

(A) Cl2

(B) SO3

(C) Nitrates

(D) Sulphates

Answer: (A)

9. Hardness is expressed on the Mohs scale, which ranges from

(A) 1 to 10

(B) 1 to 14

(C) –14 to 14

(D) 1 to 100

Answer: (A)

10. The halon H-1211 has the following chemical composition:

(A) CF2 Cl Br

(B) CCl2 FBr

(C) CCl2 F2

(D) CBr2 Cl F

Answer: (A)

11. The most toxic among the chlorinated hydrocarbons is

(A) Aldrin


(C) Endrin

(D) Heptachlor

Answer: (C)

12. Agent orange is a

(A) Weedicide

(B) Fungicide

(C) Nematicide

(D) Rodenticide

Answer: (A)

13. Major source of SO2 is

(A) Cement Industry

(B) Forest fires

(C) Thermal Power Stations

(D) Volcanic activity

Answer: (D)

14. Match each water contaminant in Column-I with its preferred method of removal in Column-II.

Column – I                              Column – II

(a) Mn2+                                   (i) Activated Carbon

(b) Ca2+ and HCO3 –             (ii) Raise Ph. by addition of Na2CO3

(c) Trihalomethane                  (iii) Addition of lime

(d) Mg2+                                  (iv) Oxidation


       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (A)

15. Reverse Osmosis (RO) operated at 200–1200 psig removes particles ranging from

(A) 0.0001 to 0.001 μm

(B) 0.01 to 10 μm

(C) 0.1 to 1.0 μm

(D) 0.1 to 2.0 μm

Answer: (A)

16. Coagulation is a chemical process, in which charged particles or colloids undergo

(A) Stabilization

(B) Destabilization

(C) Attraction

(D) Precipitation

Answer: (B)

17. Water has the following chemical composition:

[Ca2+] = 15 mg/L;

[Mg2+] = 10 mg/L;

[SO4 2–] = 30 mg/L;

The total hardness of water will be

(A) 80 mg/L as CaCO3

(B) 55 mg/L as CaCO3

(C) 160 mg/L as CaCO3

(D) 40 mg/L as CaCO3

Answer: (A)

18. Two water samples were collected. Sample # 1: pH = 9, but no carbonate or other dissolved proton donors or acceptors.

Sample # 2: pH = 8.3, but it contains dissolved NaHCO3 at a concentration of 0.01/mg/l

Which of the following is true based on the above observations.

(A) Sample # 1 will have more alkalinity.

(B) Sample # 2 will have more alkalinity.

(C) Sample # 1 and sample # 2 will have exactly same alkalinity.

(D) Alkalinity cannot be estimated.

Answer: (B)

19. Two soil samples, A and B, at different soil moisture levels are placed in contact with each other. Water will more likely move from soil A to soil B if their water potential, expressed in kPa, is:

(A) A = –5; B = +5

(B) A = –5; B = –5

(C) A = –20; B = –10

(D) A = –30; B = – 40

Answer: (D)

20. Blue baby syndrome is caused by

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Nitrate

(C) Fluoride

(D) Mercury

Answer: (B)

21. Assertion (A): For solar cell fabrication, those semiconducting materials which have band-gap energies in the range 1-1.8 eV are most suitable.

Reason (R): The maximum solar irradiance is around a wavelength corresponding to 1.5 eV.

Identify the correct Code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

22. Assertion (A): State factors (external factors) control the overall structure of an ecosystem and the way things work within it.

Reason (R): The state factors are not themselves influenced by the ecosystem.

Identify the correct code:

(A) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (B)

23. Assertion (A): When energy is transferred between trophic levels, the successive level in the pathway has lesser available energy compared to the preceding level.

Reason (R): Whenever energy is transformed, there is loss of energy through the release of heat.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

24. Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction of a dam.

Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.

Identify the correct answer:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (B)

25. Assertion (A): Soils rich in clay minerals have high levels of organic matter.

Reason (R): Clay soils tend to have low decomposition rates.

Identify the correct answer:

(A) Both statements are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both statements are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(C) Statement (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) Statement (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

26. Assertion (A): Nitrogen cycle is an endogenic biogeochemical cycle.

Reason (R): Atmospheric N2 can be fixed by certain prokaryotes in the soil.

Choose correct answer:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

27. Match the following:

Column – I                  Column – II

(a) Nekton                   (i) Associated with surface film water

(b) Neuston                 (ii) Found at the bottom of an aquatic ecosystem.

(c) Benthos                  (iii) Active swimmer, against water current.

(d) Plankton                (iv) Incapable of independent movement.

Choose the correct answer from the Codes:


       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Answer: (C)

28. Which of the following is not a major biome of India?

(A) Tropical rain forest biomes

(B) Tropical deciduous forest biomes

(C) Temperate needle leaf forestbiomes

(D) Mountains and glaciers

Answer: (D)

29. To survive and avoid competition for the same resources, a species usually occupies only part of its fundamental niche in a particular community orecosystem. This is called

(A) Geographic isolation

(B) Mutualism

(C) Realized Niche

(D) Broad Niche

Answer: (C)

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of community?

(A) Populations of different species occupying a particular place.

(B) Complex interacting network of plants, animals and microbes.

(C) Different species interacting with one another and with their environment of matter and energy.

(D) Groups of interacting individuals of different species.

Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following food chain is correct?

(A) Krill → Adelie Penguins → Emperor Penguins → Leopard Seal

(B) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Leopard Seal → Killer Whale

(C) Krill → Leopard Seal → Emperor Penguins → Killer Whale

(D) Krill → Crab eater Seal → Killer Whale → Leopard Seal

Answer: (B)

32. The observation that individuals of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that

(A) Density of population is low.

(B) Resources are distributed unevenly.

(C) The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.

(D) The members of the population are competing for access to a resource.

Answer: (D)

33. Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?

(A) Tropical forests – nearly constant day length and temperature

(B) Tundra – long summers, mild winters

(C) Savannah – cool temperature year-round, uniform precipitation during the year

(D) Temperate grasslands – relatively short growing season, mild winters.

Answer: (A)

34. Cellulose and hemicellulose are not resistant to decay but are broken down more slowly. They are considered

(A) Labile

(B) Moderately labile

(C) Recalcitrant

(D) Nonlabile

Answer: (B)

35. The parasitic gall formation is related to

(A) Host-specific antibodies

(B) Parasite specific cysts

(C) Parasite specific enzymes

(D) Host specific hormones

Answer: (C)

36. What is the estimate of volume of water yield for saturated pond aquifer of 1 metre width and 2 metre depth and length of 4 metre? Consider the porosity of sand to be 35% and specific yield to be 25%?

(A) 2.8 m3

(B) 28 m3

(C) 0.28 m3

(D) 280 m3

Answer: (A)

37. Arrange the following climate proxies in ascending order of time scales:

(i) Lithological records

(ii) Pollens

(iii) Tree rings

(iv) Historical records

(A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

(D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Answer: (B)

38. Acid drainage is more in mining of

(A) Granite

(B) Bauxite

(C) Lime stone

(D) Base metal sulphide

Answer: (C)

39. Geothermal gradient in Earth is

(A) Uniform throughout.

(B) Higher in continental lithosphere.

(C) Higher in subduction zones.

(D) Lower at mid oceanic ridges.

Answer: (B)

40. Coal mining areas are affected by

(i) Land subsidence

(ii) Fire hazard

(iii) Radioactive waste

(iv) Air pollution

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (C)

41. Radioactive elements are concentrated in

(A) Earth’s core

(B) Earth’s mantle

(C) Mid-Oceanic ridges

(D) Earth’s crust

Answer: (D)

42. What led to maximum number of fatalities during Indonesian 2004 Earthquake?

(A) Death on account of openings on surface

(B) Fires generated due to earthquake

(C) Epidemic diseases

(D) Tsunami

Answer: (D)

43. Maximum carbon in the world is found in

(A) Oceans

(B) Coal mines

(C) Antarctica

(D) Forests

Answer: (A)

44. The highest seismic domain in India is

(A) The Himalayas

(B) The Western Ghats

(C) The Indogenetic plains

(D) The Dhār war craton

Answer: (A)

45. Earth’s core is mainly composed of

(A) Iron

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Carbon

(D) Magnesium

Answer: (A)

46. Gasification is:

(A) The high temperature (~ 750 – c850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixtures.

(B) The high temperature (~ 750 – 850 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.

(C) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into flammable gas mixture.

(D) The low temperature (~ 250 – 350 °C) conversion of solid, carbonaceous fuel into liquid.

Answer: (A)

47. In case of magneto hydrodynamic power generation, for maximum power output, the efficiency is

(A) 0.25

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.75

(D) 0.4

Answer: (B)

48. Which combination of radioactive fluxes plays the all important role in climate change?

(A) Visible and infrared

(B) Visible and UV

(C) Visible, UV and infrared

(D) UV, microwaves and infrared

Answer: (A)

49. The climate sensitivity parameter is defined as the rate of change of

(A) Surface temperature with albedo of earth

(B) Surface temperature with CO2 concentration in atmosphere

(C) Precipitation with earth’s temperature

(D) Surface temperature with radioactive forcing.

Answer: (D)

50. Which of the following fuels has highest carbon intensity?

(A) Natural gas

(B) Oil

(C) Bituminous coal

(D) Biomass

Answer: (C)

51. Solid waste treatment by pyrolysis involves

(A) Autoclaving

(B) Heating in presence of air

(C) Heating in presence of acetic acid

(D) Heating in absence of air

Answer: (D)

52. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was enacted?

(A) 1962

(B) 1972

(C) 1982

(D) 1992

Answer: (B)

53. According to National Ambient Air Quality Standards, the annual average concentration of Sulphur dioxide in residential areas in India is

(A) 20 μg/m3

(B) 40 μg/m3

(C) 60 μg/m3

(D) 80 μg/m3

Answer: (C)

54. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Environmental Impact Assessment?

(A) The process considers broad range of potential alternatives.

(B) It provides early warning of cumulative effects.

(C) Focuses on sustainability agenda.

(D) Focuses on standard agenda.

Answer: (D)

55. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                                        List – II

(Components)                                                                         (Dimensions)

(a) Equitable utilization of natural resources              (i) Social dimensions

(b) Benefit to disadvantaged group                            (ii) Economic dimensions

(c) Creation of additional value                                  (iii) Environmental dimensions

(d) Elimination of toxic substances                            (iv) Political dimensions


       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer: (A)

56. Among the following, which one does not belong to EIA process?

(A) Establishment of base line environmental condition.

(B) Identification, Prediction and assessment of impact.

(C) Suggesting the mitigation measures.

(D) Developing EMS auditing procedures.

Answer: (D)

57. According to Gaussian Plume Model, the ground level concentration (C) of a pollutant varies with effective height (H) as (σ is the vertical dispersion coefficient):

(A) C ∝1/H

(B) C ∝ e– H2 /σ2

(C) C ∝ e– H/σ

(D) C ∝ H–2

Answer: (B)

58. In a multiple regression analysis, an examination of variances revealed that explained sum of squares per degree of freedom and residual sum of squares per degree of freedom were 250 and 100, respectively. What is the F-ratio?

(A) 6.25

(B) 5.25

(C) 0.4

(D) 2.5

Answer: (D)


Answer: (A)

60. Which one of the following is not an eigen value of the matrix ? 

Answer: (D)

61. A sample of 17 measurements of the diameter of a spherical particle gave a mean = 5 μm and a standard deviation = 0.5 μm. Assuming t-statistic for 16 degrees of freedom t0.05 ≈ 2, the 95% confidence limits of actual diameter are

(A) 4.75 and 5.25 μm.

(B) 4.00 and 6.00 μm.

(C) 4.9 and 5.1 μm.

(D) 4.5 and 5.5 μm.

Answer: (A)

62. “Hot spots” are areas,

(i) Extremely rich in species

(ii) With high endemism

(iii) Extremely scarce in species

(iv) Under constant threat

Choose the correct answer from the codes:


(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (D)

63. A paddy field is an example of

(A) Fresh water ecosystem

(B) Terrestrial ecosystem

(C) Auto ecosystem

(D) Engineered ecosystem

Answer: (D)

64. Which pyramid cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem?

(A) Pyramid of energy

(B) Pyramid of biomass

(C) Pyramid of number

(D) Pyramid of dry weight

Answer: (A)

65. Which one of the following environmental factors is responsible for cyclomorphism in animals?

(A) Moisture

(B) Temperature

(C) Photoperiod

(D) Wind

Answer: (B)

66. Sr90 can enter and accumulate in the body through

(A) Drinking water

(B) Inhaling contaminated air

(C) Food chain

(D) Skin

Answer: (C)

67. Which one of the following is a neurotoxic?

(A) Organophosphate

(B) Nitric oxide

(C) 2, 4-D

(D) Cuprous oxide

Answer: (A)

68. If 0.05 M proline-ninhydine complex has an absorbance of 0.15 at 520 nm in a 1 cm curvette, its molar extinction coefficient will be

(A) 50 m M–1 cm–1

(B) 0.1 M–1 cm–1

(C) 1 M–1 cm–1

(D) 3 M–1 cm–1

Answer: (D)

69. Which bacterium found in soil is anaerobic?

(A) Clostridium Sp

(B) Azatobacter Sp

(C) Bacillus Sp

(D) Thiobacillus Sp

Answer: (A)

70. Particles of sizes < 1 μm are most efficiently removed by

(A) Cyclones

(B) Scrubbers

(C) Bag filter

(D) Electrostatic Precipitator

Answer: (D)

71. The attenuation of sound by reactive type silencers is based on

(A) Absorption of sound waves

(B) Scattering of sound waves

(C) Impedance discontinuity

(D) Interference of sound waves

Answer: (C)

72. “Farmer’s lung” is a classic example for

(A) Psittacosis

(B) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

(C) Legionnaire’s disease

(D) Aspergillosis

Answer: (B)

73. The lichen and moss stages occur in

(A) Lithosere

(B) Psamosere

(C) Hydrosere

(D) Hydrarch

Answer: (A)

74. The mean of a data following Poisson distribution is 4.The second moment of the distribution is:

(A) 4

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

Answer: (A)

75. Which of the following rivers has maximum melt water component in its discharge?

(A) Indus

(B) Ganges

(C) Brahmaputra

(D) Narmada

Answer: (A)

Related Posts

Post a Comment


Jobs Alert TNPSC General Knowledge Current Affairs General Studies Tamilnadu Jobs Group IV Dinamani News State Govt. Jobs. Central Govt. Job VAO Current Affairs - 2016 Group 2 General Tamil Current Affairs - 2020 UPSC Current Affairs Mock Test Group 1 Assistant Current Affairs - 2019 TET Current Affairs - 2018 Mock Test Librarian Vacancy SSC Teaching Current Affairs - 2017 PAPER - I TRB Civics History dinamalar News Admission Science Dinamalar Group 4 Indian Constitutions Dinamalar Group 2 Library Science Quiz RRB Mathematics Officers Library and Information Science Paper II Online Quiz Anna University Jobs Dinamani GT Computer Science Quiz Dinaethal TNPSC History Quiz TNPSC Jobs TNPSC Result Dinamalar TNPSC Group 2 A Model Questions General English Research Methodology Librarian Jobs NEET 2017 Model Questions Police Model Questions Free Coaching Class TNTET - Dinamalar Technician Dinakaran Group 4 Geography Current Affairs - 2015 TN Police Model Questions Current Affairs in English 6th Standard General News Answer Key Computer Science Library and Information Science Teaching Aptitude Project Assistant 10th Standard Computer Science PAPER - III History Paper II Managers RESULT 6th Tamil Results Dinathanthi News RRB Model Question Engineers 9th Standard Railway Jobs UGC NET Clerk Group 2 A Hall Ticket Computer Science PAPER - II Current Affairs - 2022 Current Affairs - June 2016 Research Assistant Driver Library and Information Science Paper III tnpsc group IV Aavin Jobs Economics Exam Tips Office Assistant PAPER - II 10th Science Bank Exam General Science Mock Test Life Science Quiz TN Aided School Jobs 6th Standard Science Scientist TNPSC Trics TNTET UGC-NET QUIZ Accountant Trainee Jobs 7th Standard 9th Science Dinamani Group 2 Nobel Awards Nurses CBSC NET History Mock Test PAPER - III Bank Jobs CSIR-NET Medical Physicist STATE GOVT. JOBS 8th Standard Political Science Mock Test Private Jobs Typist Current Affairs - May 2016 Economics Paper II Physics Political Science Paper II TNPSC Annual Planner +2 Result 8th Science INM NEET Online Model Test Security Stenographer commerce Quiz 7th Tamil Attendant Commerce Commerce Paper-2 Economics Paper III Free download History Paper III Indian National Movement NCERT Text Book Political Science Paper III Reasoning Solved Paper - I What Today Adult Education Paper II Adult Education Paper III General Tamil Quiz Home Science Paper II Kerala Jobs Labour Welfare Paper III Professional Assistant Psychology Paper II Sociology Paper - II Sociology Quiz TNPSC Group 2 A UGC NET Result 11th Standard 8th Tamil Anthropology Paper II Anthropology Paper III Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III Archaeology Paper II Archaeology Paper III Biology Civic Comparative Literature Paper II Comparative Literature Paper III Comparative Study of Religions Paper II Comparative Study of Religions Paper III Criminology Paper II Criminology Paper III Current Affairs - April 2016 Defence and Strategic Studies Paper II Defence and Strategic Studies Paper III Education Paper - II Education Paper - III English Paper - II English Paper - III Environmental Sciences Paper - II Environmental Sciences Paper - III Forensic Science Paper II Forensic Science Paper III Geography Paper II Geography Paper III Home Science Paper III Human Rights and Duties Paper II Human Rights and Duties Paper III ISRO Jobs Indian Culture Paper - II Indian Culture Paper - III International and Area Studies Paper II International and Area Studies Paper III Labour Welfare Paper II Law Paper - II Law Paper - III Management Paper - II Management Paper - III Mass Communication Paper II Mass Communication Paper III Museology and Conservation Paper II Museology and Conservation Paper III Music Paper II Music Paper III Performing Arts Paper II Performing Arts Paper III Philosophy Paper II Philosophy Paper III Physical Education Paper - II Physical Education Paper - III Police Political Science Quiz Politics Population Studies Paper II Population Studies Paper III Psychology Paper III Public Administration Paper - II Public Administration Paper - III Sociology Paper - III TNPSC Old Questions TNPSC Syllabus Tamilnadu Tourism Administration and Management Paper II Tourism Administration and Management Paper III UGC NET Exam News Visual Arts Paper II Visual Arts Paper III Women Studies Paper II Women Studies Paper III 10th Result 10th Tamil 12th Standard Administrator Anthropology Quiz Commerce Paper-3 Constable Current Affairs - March 2016 Current Affairs - November-2015 Current Affairs - September Current Affairs English January 2019 Folk Literature Paper II Folk Literature Paper III Geography Mock Test Inspector Librarian Private Jobs Linguistics Paper II Linguistics Paper III News Clipping TN TET TNPSC News Text Books Tribal and Regional Language Paper II 12th Result 7th Science 9th Tamil B.Ed Admission Chemistry Current Affairs - 2021 Current Affairs English Dinathanthi Group 4 Geography Quiz Group-I Jailor Model Questions Lab Assistant Model Questions NIOS - Political Science New Delhi Jobs Success Tips TNPSC Departmental Exam TRB Annual Planner Tribal and Regional Language Paper III tnpsc old questions mcq 11th Tamil 6th Standard History 7th Tamil Mock Test 9th standard Tamil Quiz CSIR-NET - Chemistry Current Affairs - 2023 Current Affairs - December-2015 Foreign Jobs Latest News Paper I Physics Paper II Question Bank TNPSC Cut-off Marks TNPSC Language Test Tamil Nadu GK Telangana Jobs VAO Exam Tricks 12th Revaluation Admission Military College CTET Coaching Class Computer Science Video Current Affairs - GK Video Current Affairs - January 2016 Dinamani Group 4 Model Questions Group 8 Karnataka Jobs Mathematics Paper II Model Test for PAPER - I NEET Exam October-2015 Paper II Pharmacist Police Constable Questions SSC Annual Planner SSLC Tamil Syllabus TN PSC Jobs TN Police Original Questions TNPSC - Synonyms TNPSC Question Bank TNPSC youtube Video TNSET Tamil Paper II The Hindu Group 4 Model Question UGC NET Exam UGC NET Syllabus Who's Who gk 10th Revaluation 8th Standard Tamil About NTA Andhra Pradesh Jobs Antonyms Assistant Jailor Exams Block Health Statistician CESE CMAT & GPAT CSIR-NET - Physics Civil Engineer Mock Test Computer Science Paper II Counselling Current Affairs - Augst 2016 Current Affairs - February 2016 Current Affairs - January 2019 Current Affairs January 2019 Dinamalar Group 4 2019 Disclaimer General Knowledge Mock Test Geology Group VIII Group-II ITI Jobs Interview Questions JEE Exam January Current Affairs - 2016 KVS Teaching LIS Questions Legal Jobs Library Science Paper II Life Science Life Science Paper II Match the following Words Mathematics Quiz Mode of UGC NET Exam NTA NET Exam Paper I November-2015 Online Test Political Science Politicsa Reasoning and Logical Reasoning Scholarship South India Govt. Jobs Statistician TN EB Assessor Exam Model Questions TNPSC EO Exam TNUSRB Questions TRB QUESTIONS Tamil UGC NET Exam Syllabus International and Area Studies UGC NET Exam Syllabus Paper I UGC NET Exam Women Studies Syllabus UGC NET Notifications UGC NET Syllabus for Computer Science Paper II UGC NET Syllabus for Criminology UGC NEt Answer Keys UGC-NET Exam Date UPSC Annual Planner UPSC Old Questions United Nations centr
Subscribe Our Posting