-->

UGC NET Solved Question Paper II in Commerce { 2012 June }



1. Which of the following denote the structural changes in Indian economy?


(A) Primary sector contribution has gone down.


(B) Service sector contribution has gone up.


(C) Secondary sector has not changed much.


(D) All of the above


Answer: (D)





2. Broad Money has to be sensitized through:


(A) CRR


(B) SLR


(C) Repo Rate


(D) All of the above


Answer: (D)





3. Which one is not an element of legal environment?


(A) Act of Parliamentarians in Lok Sabha


(B) Indian Contract Act, 1872


(C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932


(D) Negotiable instruments Act, 1881


Answer: (A)





4. Out of the following, which are four dimensions of Human Development Index?


(i) Life Expectancy


(ii) Literacy Level


(iii) Success Rate of Marriages


(iv) Standard of Living


(v) Crime Rate


(vi) Corruption Level


(vii) Economic Entitlement


(viii) Foreign Visits


Codes :


(A) (i), (ii), (vi) and (viii)


(B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vii)


(C) (ii), (iii), (vi) and (vii)


(D) (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)


Answer: (B)





5. Public Enterprise is defined as


(A) An organisation run by joint efforts of Centre and State Governments.


(B) An organisation which caters to the needs relating to public utilities.


(C) An organisation in which capital is invested by public.


(D) An organisation owned and managed by public authorities for definite set of public purposes.


Answer: (D)





6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:


List – I                                                List – II


(i) Measurement of income                 (a) Accrues to the equity of owners


(ii) Recognition of expense                 (b) Recognition of revenue


(iii) Basis of realization                       (c) Matching revenue with expenses


(iv) Identification of revenue              (d) Accounting period


Codes :


(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)


(B) (b) (a) (c) (d)


(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)


(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)


Answer: (D)





7. Consider the following items:


(i) Debentures


(ii) Prepaid rent


(iii) Interest accrued


(iv) Bank overdraft


Which of them are current liabilities?


(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(B) (iv)


(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)


Answer: (B)





8. Conversion cost is the sum of


(A) Indirect wages and factory overhead


(B) Direct wages, direct expenses and factory overhead


(C) Direct material cost and indirect wages


(D) Prime cost and selling & distribution overhead


Answer: (B)





9.  (A) Assertion: Premium received on issue of shares is credited to share premium account but not to Profit and Loss account. 


(R) Reasoning: Since share premium is not a trading profit, it is not distributed to shareholders.


(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation to (A).


(B) (A) is false but (R) is correct.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).


(D) (A) is correct but (R) is false.


Answer: (C)





10. Consider the following:


(i) Basic defensive and interval ratio


(ii) Current ratio


(iii) Superquick ratio


(iv) Quick ratio Arrange these ratios in sequence to reflect the liquidity in descending order.


(A) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)


(B) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)


(C) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)


(D) (iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)


Answer: (A)


11. Normally Demand curve slopes


(A) Upward


(B) Downward


(C) Horizontal


(D) Vertical


Answer: (B)





12. Which of the following refers to Perfect Competition?


(i) There are restrictions on buyers and sellers


(ii) There are no restrictions on movement of goods


(iii) There are no restrictions on factors of production Correct one is


(A) only (i) and (ii)


(B) only (ii) and (iii)


(C) only (i) and (iii)


(D) only (i)


Answer: (B)





13. Assertion (A): Total utility will be maximum when marginal utility to price of respective products  are equal.


Reason (R): Deviation from this situation leads to reduction in maximum utility.


(A) (A) and (R) are not correct.


(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.


(C) (A) and (R) are correct.


(D) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.


Answer: (C)





14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.


List – I                                                List – II


(i) Survival                                          (a) Economic Objective


(ii) R.O.I                                             (b) Natural Urge


(iii) Growth                                         (c) Business Purpose


(iv) Innovation                                    (d) Primary Objective


Codes :


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)


(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)


(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)


Answer: (A)





15. Consider the oligopoly models:


(i) Sweezy’s kinked demand curve model


(ii) Newman and Morgenstern Game Theory model


(iii) Cournal’s duopoly model


(iv) Baumal’s sales maximization model Arrange them in correct sequence as per order of evolution.


Codes :


 (A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)


(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)


(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)


(D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)


Answer: (C)





16. Which of the following is not a restricted random sampling technique?


(A) Stratified sampling


(B) Simple random sampling


(C) Systematic sampling


(D) Multistage sampling


Answer: (B)





17. Classification of respondents only on the basis of gender is an application of


(A) Ordinal scale


(B) Nominal scale


(C) Interval scale


(D) Ratio scale


Answer: (B)





18. Karl Pearson’s co-efficient of correlation between two variables is


(A) the product of their standard deviations


(B) the square root of the product of their regression co-efficients


(C) the co-variance between the variables


(D) None of the above


Answer: (B)





19. Statistical software packages for research in social sciences include


(A) SPSS


(B) STATA


(C) MiniTab


(D) All of the above


Answer: (D)





20. F-test is used to test the significance of the differences between/among


(A) Two sample mean


(B) More than two samples mean


(C) Variance of two samples


(D) (B) and (C)


Answer: (D)


21. Match the following


List-I                                                               List-II


(i) The Practice of Management                      (a) Henry Fayol


(ii) Philosophy of Management                       (b) F.W. Taylor


(iii) Scientific Management                             (c) Oliver Sheldon


(iv) General and Industrial Administration    (d) Peter F Drucker


Codes :


       (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)


(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)


(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)


(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)


(D) (c) (d) (b) (a)


Answer: (B)





22. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in planning:


(i) Selecting the best course of action


(ii) Establishing the sequence of activities


(iii) Establishment of objectives


(iv) Evaluating alternative courses


(v) Determining alternative courses


(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)


(B) (iii), (v), (iv), (ii) and (i)


(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)


(D) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)


Answer: (D)





23. Assertion (A) : One can be sure about future course of actions by making good plans.


Reasoning (R) : Planning brings certainty in future course of actions of an organisation.


(A) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.


(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.


(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.


(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.


Answer: (A)





24. According to Kieth Devis, which one is not a barrier of communication?


(A) Physical Barriers


(B) Technological Barriers


(C) Personal Barriers


(D) Linguistic Barriers


Answer: (B)





25. While establishing relation between Maslow’s and Herzberg’s theories, which Needs of Hierachy Theory will fall under the Hygiene Factors?


(A) Self actualisation, esteem and social needs


(B) Esteem, social and safety needs


(C) Social, safety and physiological needs


(D) Only social needs


Answer: (C)





26. Howard-Sueth model of consumer behaviour is popularly known as


(A) Machine Model


(B) Human Model


(C) Marketing Model


(D) Purchase Model


Answer: (A)





27. To generate and facilitate any exchange intended to satisfy human needs or wants such that the satisfaction of these wants occur with minimal detrimental impact on the natural environment is known as


(A) Aggressive marketing


(B) Operating marketing


(C) Green marketing


(D) All of the above


Answer: (C)





28. All the activities involved in selling goods or services directly to final consumers for personal non-business uses are done by


(A) Wholesalers


(B) Retailers


(C) Mediators


(D) Commission Agents


Answer: (B)





29. To manage a business well is to manage its future and to manage the future is to manage information is termed as


(A) Management information system


(B) Marketing information system


(C) Future information system


(D) General information system


Answer: (A)





30. DAGMAR approach in marketing is used to measure


(A) Public relations


(B) Advertising results


(C) Selling volume


(D) Consumer satisfaction


Answer: (D)





31. Which one is not an important objective of Financial Management?


(A) Profit Maximisation


(B) Wealth Maximisation


(C) Value Maximisation


(D) Maximisation of social benefits


Answer: (D)





32. Which one refers to cash inflow under payback period method?


(A) Cash flow before depreciation and taxes


(B) Cash flow after depreciation and taxes


(C) Cash flow after depreciation but before taxes


(D) Cash flow before depreciation and after taxes


Answer: (B)





33. The concept of present value is based on the :


(A) Principle of compounding


(B) Principle of discounting


(C) (A) and (B)


(D) None of the above


Answer: (B)





34. Cost of capital from all the sources of funds is called


(A) Specific cost


(B) Composite cost


(C) Implicit cost


(D) Simple Average cost


Answer: (A)





35. Match the following with most suitable option:


(a) Modigiliani- Miller Approach                    (i) Commercial papers


(b) Net Operating Income Approach              (ii) Working Capital Management


(c) Short term Money Market Instrument       (iii) Capital Structure


(d) Factoring                                                   (iv) Arbitrage


Codes :


       (a) (b) (c) (d)


(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)


(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)


(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)


(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)


Answer: (B)





36. Which four are the factors influencing the Human Resource Management of an organisation?


(i) Size of workforce


(ii) Employee Expectations


(iii) Composition of workforce


(iv) Political influence


(v) Changes in technology


(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(B) (i),(ii), (iii) and (v)


(C) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)


(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)


Answer: (C)





37. Assertion (A): One can not be sure about the quality of appraisal on the basis of length of service.


Reasoning (R): Initial appraisal and promotional appraisal are done separately and differently since the length of service is different.


(A) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.


(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.


(C) (A) and (R) both are correct.


(D) (A) and (R) both are not correct.


Answer: (D)





38. Which of the following are covered under the scope of Human Resource Management?


(i) Forecasting Human Resource Needs


(ii) Replacement Planning


(iii) Human Resource Dynamics


(iv) Human Resource Development Planning


(v) Human Resource Audit


(A) (i), (iii), (v)


(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)


(C) (iii), (v)


(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)


Answer: (D)





39. On which of the following, at the initial stage, the Indian IT companies relying more for getting good IT professionals?


(A) Job Portals


(B) Placement Agencies


(C) Campus Placement


(D) All of the above


Answer: (C)





40. Statement (i): Labour always get a major share of productivity gains.


Statement (ii): Partial stoppage of work by workers amounts to strike.


(A) Statement (i) is true but (ii) is false.


(B) Statement (ii) is true but (i) is false.


(C) Both statements are true.


(D) Both statements are false.


Answer: (B)





41. Imperial Bank was established on January 27, 1921 on the advise of


(A) J. M. Keynes


(B) Lord Illingworth


(C) King George V


(D) Winston Churchill


Answer: (A)





42. Read the following events:


(i) Allowing convertibility of rupee at the market rate in the current account


(ii) Nationalisation of general insurance business


(iii) Establishment of IDBI


(iv) Nationalisation of life insurance business


(v) Capital adequacy norms for commercial banks


Arrange the events in the ascending order of their occurrence:


(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i), (v)


(B) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)


(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)


(D) (i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii)


Answer: (A)





43. In India, the Commercial Banks are given license of operation by


(A) The Government of India


(B) The Ministry of Finance


(C) Reserve Bank of India


(D) Banking Companies Regulation Act, 1949


Answer: (C)





44. The provisions of General Reserve in Banking Companies are made keeping in view the provisions of


(A) Indian Companies Act, 1956


(B) Banking Companies Act, 1949


(C) SEBI Act, 1992


(D) Statutory Auditor


Answer: (B)





45. Which among the following is not true with regard to merchant banker?


(i) It can accept deposits.


(ii) It can advance loans.


(iii) It can do other banking activities.


(iv) It can be manager to a public issue.


(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)


(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)


(D) (ii) and (iv)


Answer: (A)





46. Balance of Payments can be made favourable if


(A) Exports are increased


(B) Imports are increased


(C) Devaluation of money


(D) (A) and (C)


Answer: (D)





47. Which one is not an objective of IMF?


(A) To promote international monetary co-operation


(B) To ensure balanced international trade


(C) To finance productive efforts according to peace-time requirement


(D) To ensure exchange rate stability


Answer: (C)





48. EPCG denotes


(A) Export Potential and Credit Guarantee


(B) Earning Promotion and Credit Guarantee


(C) Export Promotion and Credit Guarantee


(D) Export Potential and Credit Goods


Answer: (C)





49. Which one of the following matches correspond to the Member and Observer countries of the SAARC?


(i) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Maldive


(ii) Iran, China, Japan, USA, South Korea, European Union


(iii) Pakistan, Nepal, India, Bangladesh, Iran


(iv) UK, USA, North Korea, South Africa


(A) (iii) and (iv)


(B) (ii) and (iv)


(C) (i) and (ii)


(D) (ii) and (iii)


Answer: (C)





50. Which one is not an international organisation?


(A) SAARC


(B) ASEM


(C) ASEAN


(D) CBDT


Answer: (D)


Related Posts

Post a Comment

Labels

General Knowledge 902 General Studies 719 Central Govt. Job 309 General Tamil 177 Mock Test 133 PAPER - I 120 Civics 101 Indian Constitutions 91 Library Science Quiz 80 Anna University Jobs 72 Library and Information Science Paper II 71 Librarian Jobs 70 Computer Science Quiz 64 History Quiz 59 General English 56 NEET 2017 Model Questions 53 Geography 45 Library and Information Science 35 Computer Science 34 Computer Science PAPER - III 32 History Paper II 32 6th Tamil 30 Computer Science PAPER - II 22 Library and Information Science Paper III 19 PAPER - II 18 10th Science 17 General Science Mock Test 17 Life Science Quiz 17 6th Standard Science 16 9th Science 14 Nobel Awards 14 CBSC NET 13 History Mock Test 13 PAPER - III 13 Medical Physicist 12 Economics Paper II 10 8th Science 9 7th Tamil 8 Commerce Paper-2 8 Economics Paper III 8 History Paper III 8 NCERT Text Book 8 General Tamil Quiz 7 Home Science Paper II 7 Labour Welfare Paper III 7 8th Tamil 6 Anthropology Paper II 6 Anthropology Paper III 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper II 6 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper III 6 Archaeology Paper II 6 Archaeology Paper III 6 Comparative Literature Paper II 6 Comparative Literature Paper III 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper II 6 Comparative Study of Religions Paper III 6 Criminology Paper II 6 Criminology Paper III 6 Education Paper - II 6 Education Paper - III 6 English Paper - II 6 English Paper - III 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - II 6 Environmental Sciences Paper - III 6 Forensic Science Paper II 6 Forensic Science Paper III 6 Geography Paper II 6 Geography Paper III 6 Home Science Paper III 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper II 6 Human Rights and Duties Paper III 6 Indian Culture Paper - II 6 Indian Culture Paper - III 6 International and Area Studies Paper II 6 International and Area Studies Paper III 6 Labour Welfare Paper II 6 Law Paper - II 6 Law Paper - III 6 Management Paper - II 6 Management Paper - III 6 Mass Communication Paper II 6 Mass Communication Paper III 6 Museology and Conservation Paper II 6 Museology and Conservation Paper III 6 Music Paper II 6 Music Paper III 6 Performing Arts Paper II 6 Performing Arts Paper III 6 Philosophy Paper II 6 Philosophy Paper III 6 Physical Education Paper - II 6 Physical Education Paper - III 6 10th Tamil 5 Commerce Paper-3 5 Folk Literature Paper II 5 Folk Literature Paper III 5 Geography Mock Test 5 Linguistics Paper II 5 Linguistics Paper III 5 7th Science 4 9th Tamil 4 Chemistry 4 Geography Quiz 4 11th Tamil 3 6th Standard History 3 7th Tamil Mock Test 3 9th standard Tamil Quiz 3 CSIR-NET - Chemistry 3 Computer Science Video 2 Mathematics Paper II 2 CSIR-NET - Physics 1 Civil Engineer Mock Test 1 Computer Science Paper II 1 General Knowledge Mock Test 1 Geology 1 Interview Questions 1 January Current Affairs - 2016 1 LIS Questions 1 Library Science Paper II 1 Life Science 1 Life Science Paper II 1 Mathematics Quiz 1
Subscribe Our Posting