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UGC NET Solved Question Paper II in Environmental Sciences { 2013 September }



1. National Land Reform Policy stresses on


(A) Restoration of ecological balance


(B) Natural regeneration


(C) Tenancy reforms


(D) Watershed approach


Answer: (C)





2. Nalgonda technique of fluoride removal involves the use of


(A) Aluminium salts


(B) Sodium salts


(C) Potassium salts


(D) Magnesium salts


Answer: (A)





3. In which years the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was held and came into force?


(A) 1951, 1955


(B) 1961, 1965


(C) 1971, 1975


(D) 1981, 1985


Answer: (C)





4. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect humans from


(A) Toxic gases


(B) Hospital acquired infections


(C) Persistent organic pollutants


(D) Carbon monoxide


Answer: (C)





5. Which of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal?


(A) Ensuring environmental sustainability


(B) Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger


(C) Developing global partnership for development


(D) Achieving universal energy security


Answer: (D)





6. In turbidity analysis, formazin is used


(A) To stabilize the samples


(B) To preserve the samples


(C) To make turbidity standards


(D) To remove colour interferences


Answer: (C)





7. pE values in water range from approximately


(A) – 1 to 14


(B) – 12 to 25


(C) 1 to 12


(D) 0 to 14


Answer: (B)





8. Point out the right match concerning the toxic metal and associated adverse impact.


(A) Zn – Brain tissue damage


(B) Ni – Keratosis


(C) Ar – Renal poisoning


(D) Hg – Pulmonary disease


Answer: (A)





9. Amount of 8-hydroxyquinoline (M.W. 145.16) required for preparing 1000 ml of 5 ppm solution is


(A) 1.45 mg


(B) 5 mg


(C) 7.25 mg


(D) 14.5 mg


Answer: (B)





10. What is OH– ion concentration of HCl whose pH is 3?


(A) –3


(B) 3


(C) 10–3


(D) 10–11


Answer: (D)





11. Radioactive waste management in our country is governed under:


(A) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement)


(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962


(C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986


(D) Biomedical Waste (Management & Handling) Rules 1998


Answer: (C)





12. Which of the following parameters is not an indicator of water vapour present in a certain quantity of air?


(A) Virtual temperature


(B) Potential temperature


(C) Wet bulb temperature


(D) Dew point


Answer: (B)





13. The background noise level in an area is represented by which of the following noise indices?


(A) L10


(B) L50


(C) L90


(D) TNI


Answer: (C)





14. The chemical formula for CFC-11 is


(A) CF2Cl2


(B) CFCl3


(C) CHFCl2


(D) CHCl3


Answer: (B)





15. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:


List – I                                    List – II


a. Mollisol                               1. Tundra


b. Oxisol                                  2. Tropical rain forest


c. Soils of high altitude           3. Prairie soil


d. Soils of low altitude           4. Rich in iron oxide


Codes:


a          b          c          d


(A)       3          4          1          2         


(B)       3          4          2          1


(C)       1          2          3          4         


(D)       2          3          4          1


Answer: (A)





16. Particles which have maximum ability to attract and hold K+, Ca++ and NH4+ ions on their surface are


(A) Clay


(B) Sand


(C) Loam


(D) Loamy sand


Answer: (A)





17. Compared to CO2, methane has global warming potential of


(A) 5 – 10 times more


(B) 20 – 25 times more


(C) 40 – 45 times more


(D) 60 – 65 times more


Answer: (B)





18. Laterite soil contains more of


(A) Iron and Aluminium


(B) Magnesium and Boron


(C) Manganese and Silicate


(D) Potassium and Lead


Answer: (A)





19. Universally accepted method for isolating semivolatile organic compounds from their matrices is


(A) Double infiltration


(B) Solvent extraction


(C) Sedimentation technique


(D) Permeation


Answer: (B)





20. The relationship between two organisms in which one receives benefit at the cost of other is known as


(A) Predation


(B) Parasitism


(C) Scavenging


(D) Symbiosis


Answer: (B)





21. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from


(A) Higher to lower altitude and higher to lower latitude


(B) Lower to higher altitude and higher to lower latitude


(C) Lower to higher altitude and lower to higher latitude


(D) Higher to lower altitude and lower to higher latitude


Answer: (A)





22. Which of the following is not an IUCN-designated threatened species found in India?


(A) Asiatic Lion


(B) Bengal Tiger


(C) Indian White rumped vulture


(D) Mountain gorilla


Answer: (D)





23. Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?


(A) A grassland


(B) A coral reef


(C) An open ocean


(D) A tropical rain forest


Answer: (C)





24. The rate of energy at consumer’s level is called


(A) Primary productivity


(B) Gross primary productivity


(C) Net primary productivity


(D) Secondary productivity


Answer: (C)





25. Peaty soil is found more in


(A) Kerala


(B) Uttar Pradesh


(C) Maharashtra


(D) Gujarat


Answer: (A)





26. Brown forest soil is also known as


(A) Entisols


(B) Altisols


(C) Spodosols


(D) Mollisols


Answer: (A)





27. Establishment of a species in a new area is referred to as


(A) Stabilization


(B) Aggregation


(C) Ecesis


(D) Migration


Answer: (C)





28. The Zooplankton of continental shelf is generally the same as in


(A) Neritic region


(B) Pelagic region


(C) Estuary region


(D) Benthic region


Answer: (B)





29. ‘Mesothelioma’ is caused by toxicity of


(A) Mercury


(B) Lead


(C) Arsenic


(D) Carbon monoxide


Answer: (C)





30. Algal biofertilizer consists of


(A) Blue green algae and earthworm


(B) Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza


(C) Blue green algae and Azolla


(D) Green algae and Rhizobia


Answer: (C)





31. A volcanic eruption will be violent if there is


(A) High silica and low volatiles


(B) High silica and high volatiles


(C) Low silica and low volatiles


(D) Low silica and high volatiles


Answer: (A)





32. Which of the following is the satellite for measuring precipitation?


(A) GRACE


(B) TRMM


(C) ASTER


(D) SPOT


Answer: (B)





33. Clay minerals are


(A) Tectosilicates


(B) Sorosilicates


(C) Inosilicates


(D) Phyllosilicates


Answer: (D)





34. Vertical dimensions can be obtained from


(A) DEM


(B) SRTM


(C) Topographic Sheets


(D) All the above


Answer: (D)





35. In biogeochemical cycle, a chemical element or molecule moves through


(A) Biosphere and lithosphere


(B) Biosphere, lithosphere and atmosphere


(C) Biosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere


(D) Lithosphere and atmosphere


Answer: (C)





36. Which of the following is not considered as a major type of seashore?


(A) Rocky shore


(B) Sandy shore


(C) Muddy shore


(D) Clayey shore


Answer: (D)





37. Low-high tides are called


(A) Spring tide


(B) Neap tide


(C) Perigean tide


(D) Apogean tide


Answer: (B)





38. Consider an ideal wind mill. For following parameters: Vane cross-sectional area = 30 m2; wind speed = 10 m/s; density of air = 1.29 kg/m3 and conversion efficiency = 0.4


What is the power output of the wind mill?


(A) ~ 5.24 kW


(B) ~ 8.21 kW


(C) ~ 10.25 kW


(D) ~ 7.74 kW


Answer: (D)





39. Biogas produced by anaerobic bacterial activity is a mixture of


(A) CH3OH, CO2, NH3 and H2O


(B) CH4, CO2, NH3, H2S and H2O


(C) H2S, CO2, CO, CH4 and LPG


(D) CO2, SO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O


Answer: (B)





40. At present, what is the share of renewable energy in the total energy production of India?


(A) ~ 11 – 12%


(B) ~ 2 – 3%


(C) ~ 20%


(D) ~ 25 – 30%


Answer: (A)





41. If all of the atmosphere were at standard temperature and pressure, then present day CO2 concentration of 392 ppm would correspond to how much carbon in the atmosphere?


(A) ~ 415 Gt


(B) ~ 831 Gt


(C) ~ 1245 Gt


(D) ~ 1620 Gt


Answer: (B)





42. Risk assessment is different from Environmental Impact Assessment in terms of


(A) Hazard identification


(B) Disaster management


(C) Probability expression


(D) Consideration of human environment


Answer: (C)





43. Reliable, quantitative and verifiable data used in Environmental Impact Assessment study are called


(A) Hard data


(B) Soft data


(C) Continuous data


(D) Discrete data


Answer: (A)





44. Which category of projects does not require Environmental Impact Assessment in accordance with the Indian EIA Notification 2006?


(A) Category A


(B) Category B1


(C) Category B2


(D) None of the above


Answer: (C)





45. Environmental Protection Act was enacted in India during


(A) 1986


(B) 1984


(C) 1994


(D) 1987


Answer: (A)





46. Minimum Stock height of incinerators should be


(A) 10 m


(B) 15 m


(C) 30 m


(D) 60 m


Answer: (C)





47. Basal convention on trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste was implemented in the year


(A) 1969


(B) 1979


(C) 1989


(D) 1999


Answer: (C)





48. The events A and B are mutually exclusive. If P (A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.2, then what is P(A & B)?


(A) 0.5


(B) 0.1


(C) 0.7


(D) 0.3


Answer: (B)





49. A population, from where samples are drawn, is called


(A) Total population


(B) Target population


(C) Accessible population


(D) Universal population


Answer: (C)





50. The rate of variation of population (N) with time (t) represented by equation dN/dt = γ N, follows


(A) J-shaped curve


(B) S-shaped curve


(C) Z-shaped curve


(D) Parabolic curve


Answer: (A)


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