UGC NET Solved Question Paper II in Public Administration { 2012 June }

1. The emergence of New Public Administration is associated with

(A) American Society of Public Administration

(B) Comparative Administration Group

(D) Minnow brook Conference

Answers: (D)

2. Factors responsible for the evolution of the study of Comparative Public Administration is/are

(A) Inadequacy of Traditional Approach

(B) Rise of New Techniques and concepts of Research

(D) All the above

Answers: (D)

3. A.V. Dicey has given classical exposition of the Rule of Law in his book

(A) Introduction to the study of the Law of the Constitution

(B) Comparative study of the Constitution

(D) Public Administration: A Comparative Perspective

Answers: (A)

4. Who among the following used the expression ‘cow sociologists’ for Hawthorne researchers?

(A) Herbert Simon

(B) Peter Drucker

(D) Comparative Administration Group

Answers: (C)

5. Which one of the following is not correct according to Weber’s Charismatic Authority?

(A) It is based on the exceptional qualities of the leader.

(B) Administration under this authority is stable.

(D) On the death of a leader under this authority, the question of succession arises.

Answers: (B)

6. A prismatic society is characterised by

(A) A high degree of homogeneity

(B) A high degree of heterogeneity

(D) None of the above

Answers: (B)

7. Which one of the following reasons is not attributed to the emergence of Development Administration?

(A) Abundance of research funding with the CAG

(B) Financial and technical assistance under the USAID programme

(D) Desire for administrative development in developing countries

Answers: (C)

8. The USA introduced the performance budgeting after the II World War on the recommendations of

(A) Grace Commission

(B) Hoover Commission

(D) Islington Commission

Answers: (B)

9. What is not true about the Constituent Assembly?

(A) It was based on the recommendations of Cabinet Mission.

(B) It was constituted by indirect elections.

(D) Seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities in proportion to their population.

Answers: (C)

10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Cabinet – Head of the Secretary Union Cabinet

(B) Chief – Head of State Secretary Secretariat

(D) Chief – Head of the Minister State Government

Answers: (A)

11. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Inter-State Council

(B) Finance Commission

(D) National Development Council

Answers: (D)

12. Which of the following is not correct about the Budget in India?

(A) The President of India has to put it before both the Houses every financial year.

(B) It is a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India.

(D) The Indian Constitution clearly mentioned the word Budget.

Answers: (D)

13. Which one of the following machineries was created in Britain in 1967 to examine complaints of corruption?

(A) Whitley Council

(B) Ombudsman

(D) Procurator-General

Answers: (C)

14. The President may remove the Chairman or member of the Public Service Commission without making a reference to the Supreme Court. Which is not true in this context?

(A) The Chairman or Member is adjudged as insolvent.

(B) The Chairman or Member engages in some paid employment outside while in office.

(D) The Chairman or Member is unfit to continue in Office due to infirmity of mind or body.

Answers: (C)

15. Civil Services preliminary examination (objective type) for the selection of candidates for the Civil Services (Main) was recommended by

(A) Hota Committee

(B) Kothari Committee

(D) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee

Answers: (B)

16. Which one among the following is not the primary source of data collection?

(A) Interview

(B) Observation

(D) Historical books

Answers: (D)

17. Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh was the first Chairperson of

(A) Central Social Welfare Board

(B) National Commission for Backward Classes

(D) National Commission for Women

Answers: (A)

18. Which of the following Committee was constituted on the recommendations of the Growmore Food Enquiry Committee?

(A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

(B) Ashok Mehta Committee

(D) Rural-Urban Enquiry Committee

Answers: (A)

19. Article 243-B of Indian Constitution provides for

(A) Constitution of Panchayats

(B) Grama Sabha

(D) Reservation of Seats in Panchayats

Answers: (A)

20. The Panchayats are described as “Little Republics” by

(A) Metcalfe

(B) Lord Ripon

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answers: (A)

21. Assertion (A): The tasks of Public Institutions are decided by the Politicians and implemented by Administrators.

Reason (R): Public Institutions perform better when they are decentralized.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)

22. Assertion (A): The Riggsian model of prismatic society is primarily an explanation of the ecology of Thailand.

Reason (R): Riggs’ two-dimensional approach means that the prismatic model would include any society that is differentiated but malintegrated.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)

23. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Speaker by warrant under his hand and seal.

Reason (R): The duties, powers and conditions of service of the CAG are laid down in the CAG’s Act, 1971.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (D)

24. Assertion (A): For Simon, administrative man looks for a course of action that is best from those available to him.

Reason (R): For Simon, administrative man is motivated by satisfactory outcome.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (D)

25. Assertion (A): To provide avenues of public employment to suitable educated Indians, a separate civil service called the statutory civil service was created in 1879.

Reason (R): All India Services maintain the integrity of the Nation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)

26. Assertion (A): The UPSC is the designated recruitment agency for the All India Services.

Reason (R): The All India Services provide a valuable link between the Union and the State Governments.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)

27. Assertion (A): Planning, Programming, Budgeting was an attempt to integrate budgeting with overall planning for the Government as a whole.

Reason (R): It combines long range planning with results oriented programmes and evaluation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (A)

28. Assertion (A): The Public Accounts Committee should satisfy itself that the money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the service of purpose to which they have been charged.

Reason (R): The Public Accounts Committee suggests alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (C)

29. Assertion (A): Judicial Activism is an effective mean of judicial control over Public Administration.

Reason (R): The PILs have enhanced the judicial control over public administration.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (A)

30. Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the watchdog of public finance.

Reason (R): The CAG is a constitutional body.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (B)

31. What is the correct sequence regarding the evolution of the discipline of Public Administration? Use the codes given below:

(i) Crisis of identity

(ii) The era of Politics – Administration dichotomy

(iii) Principles of Administration

(iv) Focus on inter-disciplinary studies

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Answers: (B)

32. Arrange the following in chronological order of their origin. Use the codes given below:

(i) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

(ii) 3rd Minnowbrook Conference

(iii) K. Santhanam Committee

(iv) Sarkaria Commission

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

(D) (iii) (i), (ii), (iv)

Answers: (C)

33. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the ascending order of Maslow’s needs’ hierarchy?

(i) Esteem needs

(ii) Affiliation needs

(iii) Self-actualization needs

(iv) Physiological needs

(v) Safety needs

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (iv), (v), (ii), (i), (iii)

(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i), (v)

Answers: (B)

34. Which is the correct sequence in descending order of following organization? Give correct answer from codes given below:

(i) Cabinet Secretariat

(ii) Department

(iii) Ministry

(iv) Directorate

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

Answers: (C)

35. Arrange the following in their chronological order. Use the codes given below:

(i) Paul H. Appleby Report

(ii) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Report

(iii) N.N. Vohra Report

(iv) Raja J. Chelliah Report

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Answers: (C)

36. What is the correct sequence of execution of Budget? Answer by using the codes given below:

(i) Disbursement of Funds

(ii) Custody of Public Funds

(iii) Assessment and Collection

(iv) Accounting and Audit

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Answers: (C)

37. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) L.D. White (i) Principles of Public Administration

(b) W.F. Willoughby (ii) Papers on the Science of Administration

(d) Dwight Waldo (iv) Introduction to the Study of Public Administration

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answers: (B)

38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Ecological Approach (i) Chris Argyris

(b) Behavioural Approach (ii) W. Niskanen

(d) Systems Approach (iv) David Easton

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answers: (C)

39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Aitchison Commission (i) 1935

(b) Federal Public Service Commission (ii) 1924

(d) Lee Commission (iv) 1912

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answers: (A)

40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Parliamentary Commissioner (i) France

(b) Administrative Courts (ii) Russia

(d) Procurator System (iv) USA

(v) Sweden

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)

Answers: (C)

41. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (i) Bangaluru

(b) National Police Academy (ii) New Delhi

(d) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iv) Hyderabad

(v) Mussoorie

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answers: (B)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Y. Dror (i) Mixed Scanning Approach

(b) A. Etzioni (ii) Normative Optimum Model

(d) V. Ostrom (iv) Public Choice Theory

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answers: (B)

43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Observation (i) Facilitates insight into the respondents.

(b) Interview (ii) Data collected are more reliable.

(d) Questionnaire (iv) The respondent has to himself fill the entries.

(v) The time and resources can be saved by selecting a smaller segment of respondents.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)

(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answers: (B)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:

List – I List – II

(a) F.W. Riggs (i) Development Administration

(b) Lucian Pye (ii) Administrative Reform

(d) O.P. Dwivedi (iv) Aspects of Political Development

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answers: (C)

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:

List – I List – II

(a) Mandamus (i) Writ will not be issued by a High Court to another High Court.

(b) Quo Warranto (ii) Writ will not be issued against the Governor of a State for the performance of his official duties.

(d) Certiorari (iv) Writ cannot be issued against private persons or associations.

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answers: (D)

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) B.R.G.F. (i) A scheme concerned with infra-structural development in 6 key areas.

(b) MNREGA (ii) A scheme to bridge the gap of requirements and availability of funds for development in rural areas.

(d) R.M.S.A. (iv) A scheme for assured employment of at least 100 days

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answers: (D)

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage: (47 – 50)

The main function of civil service is formulation and implementation of public policy. The civil service engages itself in collection of relevant data and information in order to identify the crux of the problem. The civil service, especially at the secretariat level, is considered as the ‘think tank’ of the Government and it helps in making sound and effective policies. The civil servants also administer the law of the land. They are to implement and execute the law of the land faithfully and impartially. In finance, the civil servants not only prepare the budget but also influence the taxation and expenditure policy of the government to a great extent. Today they perform quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial functions also. Public relations have become an important part of their official duties. Therefore, they are expected to explain the Government policy to the people and to win their co-operation in its implementation. In a country like India, civil servants are entrusted the responsibility of implementing various programmes of rural development and welfare measures.

Recent decades have seen a shift towards a reduced role for the Government in all countries. Thatcherism in UK and Reaganomics in USA tried to pull out the State from the morass of over-involvement. The decline of Communism in Eastern Europe has furthered the trend towards economic liberalization and disinvestment in public sector enterprises. India could not have remained unaffected by these global trends.

47. Which one of the following is not the area of Civil Servants?

(A) Collection of Data

(B) Identification of problem

(D) Enactment of Law

Answers: (D)

48. Civil Servants are not discharging the following:

(A) Execution of Law of the land

(B) Preparation of the budget

(D) Judicial activities

Answers: (D)

49. Which one of the following factors has not contributed to the rise of globalization?

(A) Thatcherism in UK

(B) Reaganomics in USA

(D) Growth of Social Legislation

Answers: (D)

50. Which one of the following areas is not the concern of the Government Policy in recent trends?

(A) Disinvestment in Public Enterprises

(B) Increasing the efficiency of Civil Servants

(D) Deregulation of Monopolies

Answers: (C)

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UGC NET Solved Question Paper II in Public Administration { 2012 June }

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