TNPSC Master

6/29/2015

General Studies for All Competitive Examination

TNPSC Master 6/29/2015 1

1. Which material is considered as the most suitable for making an electromagnet?
(a) Copper
(b) Tungsten
(c) Soft iron
(d) Steel

2. In which year was ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization) established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1969

3. Pick out the semiconductor
(a) Silicon
(b) Glass
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Gold

4. Which is the heaviest among the inner planets?
(a) Mars
(b) Mercury
(c) Earth
(d) Venus

5. A type communication which is becoming very important in transmission of data between computer networks is known as
(a) Bank Networking
(b) Communication Network
(c) Satellite area networking
(d) Internal working

6. Social reform aims at
(a) Changing basic values of the society
(b) Changing the norms of the group
(c) Changing the religious practices
(d) Changing the habits of the individuals

7. The spread of Internet for higher education is premised on
(a) Research and Development, is vital
(b) Browsing encourages critical thinking
(c) Easy management and dissemination of knowledge
(d) India should he second to none in the world

8. Which one of the following in not an input specification for a Batch System?
(a) Input Record Layout
(b) Prototype report
(c) Expanded Data Dictionary
(d) Source Document Layout

9. The World Trade Organisation believes in intellectual property and liberalized trade regime.Their belief is based on the assumption that?
(a) Modern economy bestows equal benefits
(b) All countries are well suited for modern trade
(c) Rich countries will always help the poor countries
(d) knowledge-based economy and globalization is reality

10. A structured data type made up of finite collections of ordered elements all of which are of the same date types is a
(a) array
(b) File
(c) Record
(d) None of these

11. The essence and justification for beauty contests is that
(a) Women have standard features on which they can he rated
(b) Beautiful women have a vision and role to play in social upliftment
(c) They symbolize eternal freedom for women
(d) They provide an opportunity for beautiful women of the world to come on one platform

12. Which one of the following types of soil is predominant in Bundelkhand region?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Karail soil
(c) Black cotton soil
(d) Vindhyas soil

13. Who among the following released ‘Citizen’s Guide’ for generating awareness among people against corruption?
(a) Department of Public grievances
(b) Consumer Co-operative Societies
(c) Transparency International
(d) Central Vigilance Commission

14. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat have the same territorial area
(b) Gram Panchayat arid Nyaya Panchayat has the same territorial area
(c) Pradhan of a Gram Panchayat is elected by electors
(d) The term of a Gram Panchayat is usually five years

15. Sambar wild life Sanctuaryis located in?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Rajastan

16. Who among the following is called the “Father of Modern Urdu Poetry”?
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Mirza Ghalib
(c) Mazhar Jaanjana
(d) Wali Deccani

17. At present Ram is half of his father’s age. Fifteen years ago he was one-third of his father’s age. How old will Ram be after 5 years?
(a) 45 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years

18. Which pollutant gas is released by cud chewing cattles.
(a) CO
(b) CH4
(c) NO2
(d) CO2

19. Who among the following lady revolutionaries fired at the Governor while receiving degree in the convocation of 1932?
(a) Priti Lata Vadedar
(b) Kalpana Datta
(c) Shanti Ghosh
(d) Bina Das

20. Who said “Education is the best contraceptive for population stabilisation ?
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(b) Sam Pitroda
(c) Som Nath Chatterjee
(d) Pranab Mukherjee

21. In one minute 3/7 of a bucket is filled. How much more time will be required to fill up the rest of the bucket?
(a) 7/3 minutes
(b) 4/3 minutes
(c) 21 minutes
(d) 2 minutes

22. Who among the following lady revolutionaries fired at the Governor while receiving degree in the convocation of 1932?
(a) Priti Lata Vadedar
(b) Kalpana Datta
(c) Shanti Ghosh
(d) Bina Das

23. The capital of Vatican City is:
(a) Kinshasa
(b) Nauru
(c) Lusaka
(d) Vatican city

24. Blue Tongue is a disease found in?
(a) Blue Whale
(b) Snakes
(c) Birds
(d) Cattle Sheep

25. If cost price is 96% of the selling price, the percentage of profit is?
(a) 4.17
(b) 4.00
(C) 4.01
(d) 4.25

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6/27/2015

Teaching Aptitude Paper - I

TNPSC Master 6/27/2015 0

1. Teaching is best described as a
(A) Occupation
(B) Vocation
(C) Profession
(D) Career

2. The chief objective of teaching is
(A) Transmission of existing knowledge
(B) Stimulate curiosity of students to discover knowledge
(C) Help children to do well in examinations
(D) To facilitate research

3. A “Good” learner is one who
(A) Listens attentively to teachers
(B) Has a questioning frame of mind
(C) Spends considerable time in library
(D) Prepares well for examination

4. Identify any three factors which contribute to effective teaching
(i) Art of communication
(ii) Subject mastery
(iii) Smart and handsome looks
(iv) Rapport with students
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5. Programmed instruction is based on the principles of learning which is known as
(A) Software learning
(B) Motivation
(C) Reinforcement
(D) Systematic programming

6. Sentence completion tests are objective type of tests which measure
(A) Recognition ability
(B) Sentence knowledge
(C) Association skill
(D) Recall ability

7. Three of the following four attributes characterise research. Identify the one which is not an attribute of research
(A) Research is purposive
(B) Findings of research can be generalised for all contexts
(C) Research is logical and objective
(D) Research is based on accurate data

8. Match the following :
I II
(a) Experimental (p) Continuity of Method observations over time
(b) Descriptive (q) Internal Method criticism of data
(c) Historical (r) Stratified Method sample
(d) Longitudinal (s) Equivalence of
Method groups
(A) (aq), (br), (cs) and (dp)
(B) (br), (cq), (dp) and (as)
(C) (cp), (dq), (as) and (br)
(D) (dq), (cp), (bs) and (ar)

9. Reorganise the following in an appropriate sequence
(i) Analysis and interpretation of data
(ii) Preparation of Research Report
(iii) Identification and selection of a problem
(iv) Formulation of a research design
(v) Collection of data
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) and (v)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (v) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (v), (iv), (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (v), (i) and (ii)

10. One of the following behaviour does not confirm to research ethics. Identify the behaviour
(A) Copying passages from a book along with acknowledgement
(B) Arriving at a generalisation which the researcher feels as truth even though data do not support it
(C) Formulating hypothesis which is not confirmed by review of literature
(D) Using statistical techniques in qualitative research

(Note: Previous APSET-2012 Question)

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General Knowledge - Largest in this World

TNPSC Master 6/27/2015 0

Largest – World
Largest continent - Asia
Largest ocean -Pacific
Largest river -Amazon
Largest river basin - Amazon
Largest lake (salt water)-Caspian sea
Largest lake (fresh water)-Lake Superior (North America)
Largest artificial lake - Lake Mead at Hoover Dam,b (USA). Originally known as Boulder.
Largest bay - Hudson Bay (North Canada)
Largest gulf - Gulf of Mexico
Largest gorge - Grand Canyon (USA)
Largest sea - South China sea
Largest delta - Sundarbans (India & Bangladesh)
Largest peninsula - Arabia
Largest island - Greenland
Largest country (in area) - Russia
Largest country (in population) - China
Largest temple` - Angkorwat (Cambodia)
Largest archipelago - Indonesia
Largest airport - King Khalid International Airport at Riyadh (Saudi Arabia)
Largest church - St.Peter's Basilica, (Rome)
Largest mosque - Sha Faisal Mosque (Islamabad)
Largest embassy - Russian Embassy (Beijing)
Largest war plane - Mirage (France)
Largest prison - Kharkov (Russia)
Largest hotel - MGM Grand Hotel and Casino,Las Vegas (USA)
Largest desert - Sahara (Africa)
Largest forest - Coniferous Forests of Northern Russia
Largest stadium - Strahove (Czech Republic)
Largest library - United States Library of Congress
Largest museum - American Museum of Natural History (New York)
Largest animal - Blue whale
Largest land animal - The African Bush Elephant
Largest democracy - India
Largest electorate - India
Largest town - Mt. Isa (Queensland).

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General Studies for Indian Constitution

TNPSC Master 6/27/2015 0

1. A separate Governor for Bengal to be appointed under the act ?
A. Pitts India Act of 1784
B. Charter Act of 1793
C. Charter Act of 1733
D. Charter Act of 1753

2. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary Form of Government is the
A. Sovereignty of Parliament
B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature
D. Independence of the Judiciary

3. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court
D. The Parliament

4. Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration of tribal areas?
A. Orissa
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Assam

5. The Governor of a State
A. enjoys office for five years
B. enjoys the confidence of the President
C. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
D. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

6. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court
B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency

7. Which Act was passed to consolidate the provisions of the preceding Government of India Acts ?
A. Government of India Act, 1858
B. Government of India Act, 1861
C. Government of India Act, 1892
D. Government of India Act, 1915

8. Indian Constitution has been amended how many times since India became a Republic?
A. 75 times
B. 76 times
C. 100 times
D. 80 times

9. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution for India?
A. Swaraj Party in 1934
B. Congress Party in 1936
C. Muslim League in 1942
D. All Parties Conference in 1946

10. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
A. the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
B. special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
C. discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
D. special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

11.Which of the following States does not have a Bi-Cameral legislature?
A. Bihar
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra

12. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
A. the President
B. the Chief Minister
C. the Parliament
D. the State Legislature

13. Can one person act as Governor for more than one State?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only for three months
D. Only for six months

14. Which one of the following is not matched correctly?
Scheduled in the Indian Costitution Deals with
A. Ninth Schedule Provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection
B. Eighth Schedule Languages
C. Seventh Schedule Union, Sate and Concurrent
D. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha

15. For the first time Indian Legislature was made "Bi-cameral" under :
A. Government of India Act, 1861
B. Government of India Act, 1892
C. Government of India Act, 1915
D. Government of India Act, 1919

16. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Prime Minister of India
A. is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
B.can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet
D. has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion ary power vested with the President of India

17. B.R.Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
A. West Bengal
B. the Bombay Presidency
C. the then Madhya Bharat
D. Punjab

18. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India?
I. Public Accounts Committee
II. Union Ministry of Finance
III. Committee of Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III

D. I, II and III

19. Now Tamil Nadu has
A. Unicameral Legislature
B. Bicameral Legislature
C. Tricameral Legislature
D. None of the above

20. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
A. Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State and Cabinet Ministers
B. Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers and Cabinet Ministers
C. Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers

21. Right to free education within certain limits is
A. guaranteed as a fundamental right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the constitution
D. ignored by constitution

22. Vice President of India presides over
A. House of People
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both A & B
D. Union Cabinet

23. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 30th Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. Union Cabinet

24. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of
A. the President
B. Parliament
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General
D. Finance Minister

25. How much time it took for Constituent Assembly to finalise the constitution ?
A. 2 Years 11 Months 18 Days
B. 2 Years 9 Months 8 Days
C. 2 Years 7 Months 18 Days
D. 2 Years 5 Months 20 Days

26. A bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation?
A. the presiding officers of both houses of parliament
B. the legislatures of the States concerned
C. the Supreme Court
D. the President

27. In a federal state
A. state are more powerful than the centre
B. centre is more powerful than states
C. a presidential form of government functions
D. constitution effects division of powers between the center and states with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction

28. Who among the following acts as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. Vice President of India
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. One who is elected by the Members of Rajya Sabha
D. The leader of the party having the highest number of members in Rajya Sabha

29. Constitution of India came into effect from ?
A. 15 January, 1950
B. 26 January, 1950
C. 15 August, 1950

D. 15 January, 1950

30. The Christian Missionaries were allowed to spread their religion in India, under the Act ?

A. Pitts India Act of 1784

B. Charter Act of 1813

C. Charter Act of 1833

D. Charter Act of 1853

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General Studies for Indian Constitution for All Exam (TNPSC,SSC,TRB,TET, UPSC, RRB)

TNPSC Master 6/27/2015 0

1. 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
A. to grant statehood to Uttaranchal
B. to make elementary education compulsory
C. to make army service mandatory
D. None of these

2. Which one of the following right was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by Dr.Ambedkar?
A. Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Freedom of Religion

3. Which of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt with by them are correctly matched?
I. Article 352 Proclamation of emergency
II. Article 370 Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir
III. Article 14 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
IV. Article 40 Organisation of Village Panchayats Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

4. Which one of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of a State in India?
A. His role as Chancellor or the Universities in the State
B. His power to dismiss the ministry
C. His power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D. His power to return a Bill to the State Legislative Assembly for reconsideration

5. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only on the Upper House
D. he has become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as the Prime Minister

6. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with
A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand
B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures
C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir
D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes

7. To whom a case of dispute in the election of the President of india be referred?
A. Election Commission
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Central Cabinet

8. The theory of Check and Balances is a unique feature of the
A. British Constitution
B. Indian Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. Japanese Constitution

9. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:
I. There is no age limit his appointment
II. He can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee
III. He Shall have the right of audience in all the courts
IV. The term of his office is fixed by the Constitution of India Of the statements
A. I and II are correct
B. I, II and III are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct

10. The Prime Minister of India resigns when he does not command majority in the Lower House of Parliament is
A. in accordance with a stipulation in the Constitution
B. not explicitly state in the Constitution but followed as a convention
C. peculiar to Indian democracy
D. a legacy of the Government of India Act, 1919

11. Which one of the following sets of special powers have been conferred on Rajya Sabha by the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and creation of one or more All-India Services
C. To amend the elction procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his retirement
D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

12. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. autonomy of States
B. the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
C. the removal of a Chief Minister
D. the appointment of a Governor

13. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
C. Both of these
D. None of these

14. To whom should the President of India address the letter of his resignation?
A. The Prime Minister of India
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. The Vice-President of India

15. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court
B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency

16. Which one of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be member of either House of Parliament
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Neither I nor II
B. Both I and II
C. I alone
D. II alone

17. Consider the following two statements
Assertion A) : The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new all India service in national interest.
Reason (R) : The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

18. The Constitution of India is
A. unitary
B. perfectly federal
C. federal with a strong centralizing tendency
D. con-federal

19. Consider the following Statements
Assertion (A) : Democracy renders minority ineffective ensures the tyranny of the majority
Reason (R) : For all practical purposes, democracy means rule by the majority Of these statements
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

20. Match List I (Schedule to the Constitution of India) with List II (Subject dealt with by the Schedule) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
I. First a. Territorial extent of Indian States and Union Territories
II. Eighth b. Languages
III. Ninth c. Validation of Acts/Regulations passed by the State Legislature
IV. Tenth d. Disqualification on grounds of defection of members of the House

I II III IV
A. b a d c
B. a b d c
C. b a c d
D. a b c d

21. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by a
A. Council of Ministers
B. Lt. Governor
C. Governor
D. The President

22. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the State “to provide free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age”?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Special Provisions related to certain classes

23. Which of the following Commission has been given a statutory status by the Central Government?
A. Central Water Commission
B. Central Vigilance Commission
C. National Human Rights Commission
D. None of these

24. Bills are normally introduced in the Parliament
A. during question hour
B. during zero hour
C. soon after lunch break
D. shortly before the House adjourns for the day

25. In India, with several characteristics of a Federal Government, the supremacy lies in
A. Constitution
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. Bureaucracy

26. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but was added by the 42nd Amendment?
A. To create respect for Inter-National law
B. To avoid concentration of wealth
C. To provide free legal aid
D. To ensure equal wages for equal work

27. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor for the
A. Union Government
B. State Governments
C. Union and State Governments
D. Neither Union nor State Governments

28. To enable the scheduled cases and scheduled tribes to avail themselves of benefits of the preferential right conferred on them by the Constitution, the President of India notifies them as such under
A. Articles 339 and 340
B. Articles 340 and 341
C. Articles 341 and 342
D. Articles 342 and 343

29. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for reconsideration?
A. Ordinary Bills
B. Money Bills
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of Parliament
D. Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

30. One of the chief defects of Universal Adult Franchise is
A. it gives chance to a common man to be associated with the decisions of the government
B. it protects the rights of minorities
C. it leads to rule by ignorants
D. it lays emphasis on the principle of equality

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General Studies for all Competitive Exam (TNPSC, SSC, UPSC, TET, TRB,RRB,IBPS, BANKING EXAM)

TNPSC Master 6/27/2015 0

1. Reasons for the growth of Regional Political Parties in India is?
A) Lack of effective opposition
B) Economic disparities among the States
C) Failure of the national parties
D) All of the above

2. The first state in India to be formed on linguistic basis is
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Odisha
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra

3. The only Union Territory which has High Court of its own is
A) Chandigarh
B) Daman and Diu
C) Delhi
D) Lakshadweep

4. One of the following subjects is not in the State List:
A) Market and fairs
B) Bankruptcy and insolvency
C) Police and Prisons
D) Public health and sanitation

5. Who was the founder of Slave Dynasty in India?
A) Balban
B) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
C) Muhammad Ghori
D) Iltutmish

6. Chandragupta Maurya was the
A) Great-grandfather of Ashoka
B) Brother of Ashoka
C) Father of Ashoka
D) Grandfather of Ashoka

7. Who was known as ‘Lakh Baksh’?
A) Iltutmish
B) Raziya
C) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D) Babar

8. Who was among the pioneer among the social reforms?
A) Ramkrishna Paramhans
B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Raja Rammohun Roy
D) Dayanand Saraswati

9. Which of the following classes did not participate in the Revolt of 1857?
1. Agriculture labourers
2. Money lenders
3. Peasants
4. Zamidars

A) 2 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 only
D) 1 and 2

10. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to
A) Linking of rivers
B) Development of Roads
C) Communication
D) Social Integration

11. CD-ROM is a
A) Magnetic Memory
B) Secondary Memory
C) Semiconductor Memory
D) Memory Register

12. pH value of blood is
A) In between 8 and 10
B) Greater than 10
C) Less than 6
D) In between 7 and 8

13. Great Barrier Reef is situated in
A) Australia
B) Nova Scotia
C) North Sea
D) Southern China

14. In India, the longest day occurs on
A) April 13
B) October 13
C) June 21
D) March 21

15. Which one of the following is not found in new alluvial soil?
A) Humus
B) Gas
C) Minerals
D) Water

16. Palghat Gap connects Tamil Nadu with
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Both (A) and (B)

17. Jodhpur receives less rainfall than Delhi because
A) Arabian Sea runs parallel to Aravali
B) It is on leeward side of the winds
C) Condensation does not place there
D) All of above factors

18. Bamboo is a
A) Tree
B) Climber
C) Shrub
D) Herb

19. Which vitamins are those which if taken in excess can be dangerous as they are stored in the body?
A) B Complex
B) E and C
C) B and C
D) A and D

20. Which one of the following constitutes two best reasons for distinguishing the living from the non-living?
A) Respiration and excretion
B) Reproduction and locomotion
C) Irritability and locomotion
D) Growth and locomotion

21. The expansion of D.D.T. is
A) Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane
B) Dichloro Diamine Trichloroethane
C) Dichloro Diphenyl Tetrachloroethane
D) None of the above

22. Which of the following animals is a parasite?
A) Amoeba
B) Sponge
C) Plasmodium
D) Earthworm

23. Which of the following respires by gills?
A) Cray-fish
B) Star-fish
C) Silver-fish
D) Jelly-fish

24. The book ‘Friends and Foes’ was written by
A) Rajmohan Gandhi
B) Sheikh Majibur Rahman
C) Lord Tennyson
D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

25. On the lines of ‘Place on wheels’, a new train ‘Deccan Odyssey’ is operated between
A) Karnataka and Kerala
B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
D) Maharashtra and Goa

26. Name of the famous paper which Gandhiji edited to propagate his ideas?
A) Harijan
B) Satyagrah
C) Khadi
D) Swadeshi

27. The aeroplane that dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima was?
A) White Storm
B) Thunder Power
C) Enola Gay
D) Black Light

28. Which Indian Commercial Bank became the first in provide mobile ATM service?
A) HDFC Bank
B) SBI
C) ICICI Bank
D) IDBI Bank

29. Sivakasi, which recently witnessed major explosions in the cracker
manufacturing units, is situated in the State of
A) Kerala
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh

30. Ajanta-Ellora Caves are situated near
A) Ajmer
B) Aurangabad
C) Patna
D) Jaipur

31. Who is the author of the book ‘Apprenticeship of a Mahatma’ is based
A) Arundhati Roy
B) Shyam Benegal
C) Shobha De
D) Fatima Meer

32. The ‘break-even point’ is where
A) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost
B) Average revenue equals average cost
C) Total revenue equals total cost
D) None of the above

33. South-south dialogue is associated with
A) Co-operation among developing nations
B) Arms conference
C) Summit meeting between the developed and the developing countries
D) All of the above

34. Among the following, which one is not a football club?
A) Arsenal
B) Aston Villa
C) Chelsea
D) Monte Carlo

35. Rate of interest is determined by
A) The rate of return on the capital invested
B) Central Government
C) Liquidity preference
D) Commercial Banks

36. Which of the following has not been a component of the agricultural strategy that brought about the Green Revolution?
A) Greater intensity of cropping
B) Guaranteed maximum prices
C) New agricultural technology
D) Package of inputs

37. Which of the following makes the skin layer impervious to water?
A) Collagen
B) Melanin
C) Keratin
D) Chitin

38. Generally, the soil of the northern plains of India id formed by
A) Degradation
B) Aggradation
A Compilation of www.study-places.com Page 8
C) Weathering in situ
D) Erosion

39. Two richest source of edible protein are
A) Meat and eggs
B) Milk and vegetable
C) Soyabean and groundnut
D) Some type of algae and other micro-organism

40. Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial effluents?
A) Parthenium
B) Elephant grass
C) Water hyacinth
D) Both (A) and (B) above

41. Mughal presence in the Red Fort ceased with the fall of
A) Aurangzeb
B) Muhammad Shah
C) Shah Alam
D) Bahadur Shah ‘Zafar’

42. Who was the first known Gupta ruler?
A) Sri Gupta
B) Chandragupta I
C) Ghatotkacha
D) Kumaragupta I

43. Which of the following international prizes/awards is given for outstanding contribution n the field of the journalism?
A) Booker Prize
B) Pulitzer Prize
C) Sakharov Prize
D) Sullivan Prize

44. Who is recognised as the Father of Geometry?
A) Pythagoras
B) Euclid
C) Johann Kepler
D) Rene Descartes

45. With which of the following fields is Ben Kingsley associated?
A) Sports
B) Medical Science
C) Motion Picture
D) Social Service

46. Who among the following leaders was not assassinated?
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Liaqat Ali Khan
C) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
D) Lord Louis Mountbatten

47. When was colour TV transmission introduced in India?
A) 1980
B) 1981
C) 1982
D) 1984

48. Who was the founder Director of TIFR?
A) S. S. Bhatnagar
B) H. J. Bhabha
C) M. N. Saha
D) Vikaram Sarabhai

49. When was ISRO set up?
A) 1965
B) 1969
C) 1971
D) 1976

50. How many countries have exploded the atom bomb before India?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) 3

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